From: Jim Devine

c b wrote:
> Wage-labour rests exclusively on competition between the labourers
>
> True or false ?

as usual is true/false questions about complex questions, the
sophisticated answer is "both."

False: according to Marx, the basis of wage labor (i.e., the
proletariat) under capitalism is a double freedom: (1) freedom from
the bondage of serfdom, slavery, and the like; and (2) freedom from
ownership of the means of production and subsistence, so that the
"free" labor has no choice but to buy consumption (subsistence) goods
from those who own the means of production.

True: if the laborers were to totally unite, to form One Big Union as
it were, then the institution of wage-labor could go away.

^^^^^
CB: This comes from the Manifesto *. It seemed to be a quasi-technical
economic assertion. I was struck by the word "exclusively".  Is there
an political economic argument that might underlie the statement ? I
guess reading further in the passage the "competition" is lessened by
capitalists combining workers in factory association ,termed
"cooperation" in _Capital_.

But maybe it's more political as in your "True" answer, since they end
that essay with "Working Men of All Countries, Unite! "


* The essential conditions for the existence and for the sway of the
bourgeois class is the formation and augmentation of capital; the
condition for capital is wage-labour. Wage-labour rests exclusively on
competition between the labourers. The advance of industry, whose
involuntary promoter is the bourgeoisie, replaces the isolation of the
labourers, due to competition, by the revolutionary combination, due
to association. The development of Modern Industry, therefore, cuts
from under its feet the very foundation on which the bourgeoisie
produces and appropriates products. What the bourgeoisie therefore
produces, above all, are its own grave-diggers. Its fall and the
victory of the proletariat are equally inevitable.
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