On Jul 22, 2011, at 4:19 PM, Gil Skillman wrote: > Possibly, but I think we'd have to know more about the example (and about > how you're defining "speculative" here) to conclude this, and beyond this, > to conclude that it corresponded to surplus value. Speculative > gain? Depends on the conditions under which it was bought and sold, unless > any capital gain from the sale of an asset, however motivated, constitutes > speculation. That the original X corresponds to capitalized value of the > expected future flow of rents makes sense, but that's not enough to > conclude that DX represents a chunk of surplus value, as Marx defined the > term.
Speculative = gain from change in asset prices, not interest or dividend. A capitalized stream of bits of surplus value isn't SV, is it? It's a redistribution from one capitalist to another. Doug _______________________________________________ pen-l mailing list [email protected] https://lists.csuchico.edu/mailman/listinfo/pen-l
