On Feb 28, 2012, at 9:56 PM, Perelman, Michael wrote:
Gar comes close to Marx, who says that earlier modes of production
[feudalism, slavery] pumped out surplus, but not in the form of
surplus value.
I always had the impression that surplus value was not a concept
that applied only to capitalism, but that capitalism had as a
critical core a particular way of assigning claims on surplus value.
For instance, under some forms of feudalism the primary producer of
surplus value was agricultural labor, but the primary means of
claiming that surplus value was rent. True?
Surplus-value is characteristic only of capitalism because only under
capitalism does the social product take the form of *commodities*,
which are *values* denominated in labor-time equivalents (prices),
A feudal system extracts surplus labor (not surplus-value) in the
forms of dues-in-kind and corvée.
The essence of the transition from feudalism to capitalism was the
substitution of money-rent for dues and corvée.
Shane Mage
"All things are an equal exchange for fire and fire for all things,
as goods are for gold and gold for goods."
Herakleitos of Ephesos, fr, 90
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