Is there any physical or legal reason why the Greek government could
not re-introduce the drachma alongside the Euro?

Suppose that instead of cutting the wages of Greek workers in the
public sector as demanded by the troika, the Greek government said:
we'll cut their Euro wages as you demand, but we'll make up the
difference in drachma.

Suppose that the Greek government said: we'll raise taxes, but the new
taxes will be payable in drachma.

Suppose the Greek government said: we'll cut the Euro minimum wage,
with the proviso that anyone who pays less than the old Euro minimum
wage has to make up the difference in drachma.

Is there any legal or physical obstacle to doing this?



-- 
Robert Naiman
Policy Director
Just Foreign Policy
www.justforeignpolicy.org
[email protected]
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