Ken, > Somewhere, perhaps in the Economic and Philosophical > Manuscripts Marx says something to the effect that under > capitalism even if there were equal distribution of income > that the worker would still be in effect a slave.
Here are a few Marx places which are related to what you are looking for, although they are not quite the same: In *Results of the Immediate Process of Production* Marx writes that the capitalist is more alienated than the worker or more enslaved by the system or something because the capitalist likes his alienation, while the worker is rebellious against his. And there is of course *Value, Price and Profit*, where Marx says that there is no such thing as a fair wage. Even if the workers get a full equivalent of what they produce, they still don't control their labor. Instead of higher wages, they must fight for the abolition of the wage-labor system. And in *Capital*, section 3 of chapter 1, when he discusses what Aristotle did and didn't know about value, Marx says "The secret of the expression of value, namely the equality and equal validity of all kinds of labor because and in so far as they are human labor in general, could not be deciphered until the concept of human equality had already acquired the fixity of a commonly held prejudice." Calling equality a "commonly held prejudice." (Volksvorurteil) supports the notion that people are not equal but their equality is constructed by the commodity relations. In the critique of the Gotha Program, if I remember right, he defends income according to work as a concession to concepts of justice coming from capitalism. It remedies the injustices of capitalism, although capitalism is no longer in existence. This will then be overcome in income according to needs. (Negation of negation). Hans _______________________________________________ pen-l mailing list [email protected] https://lists.csuchico.edu/mailman/listinfo/pen-l
