Jim, skill*-*biased technical change has been the current orthodoxy, and
Krugman is arguing for a shift to capital-biased technical change,
but my point is that both of these orthodox versions are based on marginal
productivity theory.

On Thu, Jan 3, 2013 at 9:36 AM, Jim Devine <[email protected]> wrote:

> I thought that the current orthodoxy -- including PK -- embraced 
> *skill-*biased
> technical change.
>
> Jim Devine
>
> Fred Moseley <[email protected]> wrote:
>
> Krugman is “transitioning to the left” only so far as to recognize the
> obvious stagnant real wages and declining wage share of income in the US in
> recent years and to worry about the “uncomfortable” implications of these
> facts.  But his *explanation* of these facts is in terms of the widely
> criticized marginal productivity theory of distribution, according to which
> profit is determined by the “marginal product of capital” (as opposed to
> the surplus labor of workers).  His explanation of stagnant real wages is
> “capital-biased technological change”, which is defined as technological
> change which increases the “marginal product of capital” in relation to the
> “marginal product of labor” (i.e. ↑MPK/MPL).  This is such BS! Marginal
> products do not exist and can’t explain anything.
>
>
>
> Below is a response of mine to another recent post by Krugman on the same
> subject.  It also refers to a prior post by Krugman and a prior criticism
> by me which was posted on the Economist’s View blog.
>
>
>
> I would appreciate comments.
>
>
>
> Fred
>
>
>
>
>
> *Krugman’s explanation of stagnant real wages*
>
>
> This is a brief response to a recent post by Paul Krugman on his blog
> about “capital-biased technological change” as an explanation of stagnant
> real wages and the declining wage share of income:  (
> http://krugman.blogs.nytimes.com/2012/12/26/capital-biased-technological-progress-an-example-wonkish/
> ).
> This is a follow-up to a previous comment of mine on Economists’ View:
>
> http://economistsview.typepad.com/economistsview/2012/12/krugmans-explanation-of-stagnant-real-wages.html
>
> which was a response to a previous post on this subject by Krugman:
>
>
> http://krugman.blogs.nytimes.com/2012/12/10/technology-and-wages-the-analytics-wonkish
> )
>
>
>
> Krugman still has not clearly defined what he means by “capital-biased
> technological change”, but he says that he is following Hicks (1932), and
> Hicks definition is technological change which increases the marginal
> product of capital (MPK) more than the marginal production of labor (MPL);
> i.e. ↑MPK > ↑MPL (at a given K/L ratio).  Thus, Krugman’s definition of
> “capital-biased technological change” is in terms of the *marginal
> products *of the marginal productivity theory of distribution.
>
>
>
> Krugman presents an example of office work with two inputs (capital and
> labor) and two possible techniques, one capital-intensive and one
> labor-intensive.  However, this example does not include raw materials
> (and other intermediate inputs), and thus does not address the criticism
> that *raw materials render the concept of the MPL (or the MPK) impossible
> *(a criticism which I made in my earlier post and which goes back to
> Hobson and Pareto in the early 20th century).  Raw materials cannot be
> held constant (as the concept of marginal product of labor or capital
> requires) while increasing labor (or capital) and output.  In order to
> produce another car, one must have additional wheels, brakes, etc.  And
> between labor and raw materials, there is *only one factor proportion
> possible *(i.e. only one “technique”), so Krugman’s example of two
> techniques and extrapolation to a “bunch” of techniques (the usual
> hand-waving to approach a “smooth isoquant”) does not apply.  There is *no
> isoquant *(kinked or smooth) between labor and raw materials.  One cannot
> increase labor and reduce raw materials and produce the same quantity of
> output.  A car still needs four wheels.
>
>
>
> In order to reassure readers with doubts about marginal productivity
> theory (“if you’re worried”), Krugman just asserts that “labor and machines
> are paid their marginal products”.  I argue that this conclusion is
> invalid in cases that include raw materials, since marginal products *do
> not exist *in these cases.
>
>
>
> I agree with Krugman that technological change is replacing labor, not
> just low-skilled labor, but also medium-skilled labor, and even
> increasingly high-skilled labor (as he has been writing about:
> http://krugman.blogs.nytimes.com/2012/12/08/rise-of-the-robots/)
>
> But this important phenomenon cannot be analyzed in terms of MPK and MPL
> because these marginal products do not exist.
>
>
>
> There are a number of other major (and probably insoluble) problems with
> marginal productivity theory that are fairly well known and have been known
> for a long time:  the “aggregation” problem, the “adding-up” problem, the
> “reswitching” problem, the “multi-causality” problem (which is similar to
> the “raw materials” problem in that it renders marginal products
> impossible), the precise definition of the “price of capital”, the lack of
> adequate theories of the supply of either labor or capital, etc..  But
> the impossibility of marginal products in production processes that include
> raw materials is the most obvious insoluble problem.
>
>
>
> Marx’s theory predicted in the early days of capitalism that technological
> change would tend to be labor-saving (in the usual sense of using less
> labor to produce the same quantity of output, not in Hicks’ and Krugman’s
> sense of a ratio of marginal products), and this labor-saving technological
> change would cause increasing unemployment (the “reserve army of the
> unemployed”) which in turn would put downward pressure on wages and the
> wage share of income (*Capital*, Volume 1, Chapter 25).  He called this
> important conclusion “The General Law of Capital Accumulation” (the title
> of Chapter 25).  One does not have to use the very dubious marginal
> productivity theory to explain these important phenomena.  Marx’s theory
> provides a perfectly adequate explanation without the extremely problematic
> concepts of marginal products of labor and capital.
>
>
>
> To his credit, Krugman acknowledges in another recent post
> http://krugman.blogs.nytimes.com/2012/12/08/rise-of-the-robots/
>
> that the current capital-labor dimension of inequality “has echoes of
> old-fashioned Marxism – which shouldn’t be reason to ignore the facts, but
> too often it is.”  But Krugman still wants to explain these
> “uncomfortable” facts in terms of marginal products and marginal
> productivity theory, in spite of the many well-known deficiencies of this
> theory.  I suggest that he should not ignore, not only these facts, but
> also Marx’s robust *theoretical explanation *of these facts and the
> capital-labor dimension of inequality.
>
>
>
> Fred Moseley
>
>
>
> On Wed, Jan 2, 2013 at 10:07 AM, c b <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>> Re: [Pen-l]
>> Ann Davis(nib)
>>
>> Now maybe the left can pay some attention to technological
>> change....which has been out of style among Marxists since the
>> 1970s....alas.
>>
>>
>>
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