On 2014-03-06, at 2:31 PM, Jurriaan Bendien wrote: > That’s not a bad FT article, but it doesn’t really explain why Russia has > been charging the Ukraine high gas prices. > > Maybe some valid info here: > http://www.theguardian.com/world/2014/mar/03/europes-gas-supply-ukraine-crisis-russsia-pipelines > > J.
According to this wiki entry, "after the dissolution of the Soviet Union, oil import prices to Ukraine reached world market levels in 1993. However, gas import prices and transit fees remained below European levels for Russian exports to Europe through pipelines in Ukraine; these were set in bilateral negotiations." On those occasions when the Ukrainians siphoned off gas for domestic use or fell into arrears on their payments, the Russians briefly interrupted supply to them as a pressure tactic, but it doesn't appear that as a matter of course Russia charged the Ukraine high gas prices relative relative to what Germany and the other West European countries were paying; quite the opposite, in fact. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russia–Ukraine_gas_disputes _______________________________________________ pen-l mailing list [email protected] https://lists.csuchico.edu/mailman/listinfo/pen-l
