"raghu" <[email protected]> wrote: It is an ontological rather than an empirical assertion, and as such, I am not sure what kind of evidence it is possible to provide for it. To put it slightly differently, wealth is a claim on some scarce resource, which by definition excludes others from using that resource.
The goal of the wealthy is own the means of production because that is the only way to get surplus value. Gold is scarce, but owning some doesn't monopolize all gold. -- Ron
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