Logic -- modern mathematical logic, descending from
Frege -- is not psychological and does not pretend to
be. It is a branch of mathematics. Aristotle's
syllogistic has been wholly absorbed into a part of
math logic -- the predicate calculus (not to be
confused with differential and integral calculus!).
The subject matter of math logic, and within its more
limited scope the syllogistic, is which forms of
arguments are valid -- that is, given a content-free
representation of the premises, which forms of
conclusions follow. A simple example:

If p then q
p
So q

(This is a bit of propositional calculus called,
traditionally, modus ponens.)

If Hegel's Logik -- no relation to either modern math
logic or the Aristotlean syllogistic -- is
psychological, it is not a matter of individual
psychology. Hegel has some interesting things to say
about philosophy of mind on an individual basis, but
these are mostly incidental. If there is
a"psychology" in the Logik, it is the psychology of
Geist, Spirit, which is sort of the mind of a
supra-human being that is embodied in the form of life
of a whole culture.

The Logik is really what modern philosophers call
metaphysics, about substantive concepts like being and
nonbeing, substance and accident, and the like. It
only confuses things to think that Hegel was trying to
do badly what Kant or Frege was doing well in thinking
abour logic -- that is the mathematical theory of
formal validity. Hegel was instead doing, possibly
well, what Leibniz and Spinoza were doing when they
were thinking about the ultimate structure of reality
abstractly described.

Hegel, btw, doesn't think that whatever is, is
rational in the sense that everything is always hunky
dory and this is always the best of all possible
worlds. He's not Leibniz, and he's intensely aware of
the Voltairean criticisms of that sort of Panglossian
foolishness. The least charitable reading of the real
= rational idea is that after a long period of history
in which the real wasn't rational, we have reached the
point where it finally is and history can stop now.
Marx and the Young (left) Hegelians took Hegel, or the
old (right) Hegelians to be saying something like
that. A more charitable reading is that the real is
_intelligible_, that we with the equipment of the
Logik we can make sense out of whatever is real,
without necessarily thinking it is  perfect.

--- "Devine, James" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

>  Charles B writes:
> > An aspect of this issue is the sense in which
> dialectics
> > is a logic.
> > What would we think if all natural and historical
> > theories/practices were
> > 'logical' ? In the sense of the formal logic of
> Aristotle and
> > I.M. Copi.
> > Would we think that formal logic is so 'elastic'
> that it cannot be
> > 'falsified' ? No , we would expect a certain
> pervasiveness of
> > formal logic
> > ,and so with dialectics.
>
> Hegel called dialectics a "logic," while many
> Marxists have followed this lead.  I wouldn't call
> it a logic in the same sense as formal
> (Aristotelian, deductive) logic. Alternatively, if
> dialectics is (are?) a logic, it's qualitatively
> different from formal logic.  However, you're right
> that just like formal logic, dialectics can't be
> falsified.
>
> For Hegel, the real was rational and vice-versa, so
> that there was a correspondence between mental
> states (dialectical "logic") and empirical reality
> -- or at least there would be if we worked hard
> enough at improving our dialectical conceptions.
>
> On the other hand, as far as I understand Marx, the
> real world isn't rational. Not only are there are
> contradictions in the world, but our mental states
> don't correspond to the heterogeneous and messy
> reality. You can't simply go from dialectical
> formulas to getting conclusions about the real
> world. To the extent that the dialectics describe
> the actual laws of motion of the empirical world,
> it's a first approximation. The world operates _as
> if_ there were a dialectical process going on. In
> CAPITAL, for example, Marx tried to describe the
> laws of motion of capital, but this never was seen
> as describing the actual world of capitalism except
> at a high level of abstraction. He assumed, for
> example, that the working class was almost
> completely passive in its response to the
> depredations of capital (cf. Lebowitz's book, BEYOND
> CAPITAL). The empirical world doesn't fit this
> assumption (unless the working class has been pretty
> much atomized, as in the US).
>
> For Marx, I would guess, the reality would be
> rational only when communism was established. But
> that's another story.
>
> JD
>




__________________________________
Do you Yahoo!?
Yahoo! Mail - Helps protect you from nasty viruses.
http://promotions.yahoo.com/new_mail

Reply via email to