On 12/2/05, Ted Winslow <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > Which part of what I said is this disputing? The main point I was > making was that "self-estrangement [as expressed, for instance, by > 'fetishism'] is not the responsibility of the self-estranged > individuals, it's the outcome of the inconsistency between the actual > conditions and the conditions required for full human development."
--------------------- What is the *actual, historical* non self-estranged epistemic-cum-normative baseline from which one can indefeasibly determine that humans are self-estranged and engaged in an ongoing process of self-estrangement under capitalism? Or are we dealing with a secular analog of "the fall of man"? No circular arguments alllowed. :-)
