At 09:01 07/08/2006, you wrote:
On 8/7/06, michael a. lebowitz <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
Bonapartism is a term used a lot these days--- in relation to
Venezuela, South Africa and now Iran. If it is so present, shouldn't
we all try to understand it better? Alternatively, is it being used
as an alternative to concrete analysis? Why do you see Iran as an
example of this? NB.-- This is not an antagonistic question.
michael L
another non-antagonistic question: Mike, how do you like Draper's
collation of Marx's writings on Bonapartism in his KARL MARX'S THEORY
OF REVOLUTION?
Unfortunately, I read it a long time ago and remember only that I
learned from it-- but I don't seem to have that volume. You probably
knew that and so asked the question, you creep.
>:-}
m
---------------------
Michael A. Lebowitz
Professor Emeritus
Economics Department
Simon Fraser University
Burnaby, B.C., Canada V5A 1S6
Office Fax: (604) 291-5944
Home: Phone (604) 689-9510
