On Dec 7, 2007 3:48 PM, David B. Shemano <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > While I disagree with a lot of what you say, I want to point out that you > have moved from a "failure to recognize" the interrelationship to a > "deemphasis" of the interrelationship. Maybe if we keep on talking you will > move from "deemphasis" to "overemphasis."
This is true. I oversimplified when I said there was a "failure to recognize" the market-politics relationship by libertarians. De-emphasize is absolutely more accurate but simplifications are useful for clarifying issues. But let us not read too much into linguistic short-cuts. > There is a big difference between ignorance of an issue and disagreement with > an issue. As I said before, libertarians are consumed with the > interrelationship. Yes, they draw different conclusions than you, but that > is not because they don't grasp the issue. > Here's the basic question then: if libertarians are consumed with the market-politics inter-relationship, how can you continue to assert that political processes are separate from market processes? That assertion is how this whole discussion started. -raghu.
