On 10/5/05, Autrijus Tang <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> However:
> f:{1}.()
>
> still parses as
>
> (&f(:{1})).()
>
> as the "adverbial block" form takes precedence. Is that also wrong?
No, that seems right to me, much in the same way that:
$x.{1}.{2}
Binds to the left.
Luke
