Thomas Lockhart <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:
>> Looks to me like an off-by-one kind of problem in deciding which
>> timezone applies to midnight of a transition day.

> The date->timestamp conversion code gets this right, so you might want
> to look at that.

Au contraire: the cited examples appear to prove that the
date->timestamp conversion code gets this *wrong*.  Or did
you miss the point of

regression=# select '2000-04-02'::date::timestamp;
        ?column?
------------------------
 2000-04-01 23:00:00-05
(1 row)

                        regards, tom lane

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