"Stefan Rusterholz" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message
> As you see, for PHP is some HTML-Code in the php-code-zone. To avoid this,
> do it that way:
> <?php
>      function somefunc($text,$n)
>       {
>          for($i=0;$i<$n;$i++){
>              echo $text;
>          }
>      }
>      $string='xxx <?php somefunc("yyy",3); ?> zzz';
>      eval("?>$string");
>  ?>
> Pay attention to the trailing "?>" in eval. That causes php to change to
> HTML-Mode within the eval'd code.

    Yes, thanks - it works now. I can see that you have to exit
    php code mode before you encounter HTML 'xxx'.
    Then you enter php mode, run somefunc() and exit again
    so you can deal with HTML 'zzz'.  But that leaves you
    outside php mode, right?  If the next thing after eval()
    is more php code, don't you have to enter php mode
    again like this:
        eval("?>$string<?php ");
        echo "hello";

    I tried it with and without "<?php" appended to $string. The
    "hello" always works. Why?  Does eval() automatically put
    you back into php mode?

    Stated another way, you said that this
        $string='xxx <?php somefunc("yyy",3); ?> zzz';
        echo "hello";

    is equivalent to:
        ?>xxx <?php somefunc("yyy",3); ?> zzz
        echo "hello";

    So why doesn't it treat echo "hello" as HTML code in
    pass-through mode? In fact, it just prints "hello".

John A. Grant  * I speak only for myself *  (remove 'z' to reply)
Radiation Geophysics, Geological Survey of Canada, Ottawa
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