On 5/27/2011 4:38 PM, Andrew McNabb wrote: > On Fri, May 27, 2011 at 03:31:50PM -0600, Jason Van Patten wrote: >> To determine the number of values in a set with >> a discrete non zero value we take the set and divide it by the interval. >> [...] > I don't know what it means for a set to have a value or to divide a set > by an interval. After this first sentence of the explanation, I got > even more confused. I think you're seriously mixing up terminology. > > I think you were trying to make a statement about the measure of a set > of real numbers (and in particular, the measure of an interval). I > highly recommend that you look up "Borel measure" and/or "Lebesgue > measure" to see how mathematicians approach such questions. > > > -- > Andrew McNabb > http://www.mcnabbs.org/andrew/ > PGP Fingerprint: 8A17 B57C 6879 1863 DE55 8012 AB4D 6098 8826 6868 > > /* > PLUG: http://plug.org, #utah on irc.freenode.net > Unsubscribe: http://plug.org/mailman/options/plug > Don't fear the penguin. > */ > This is what i get for breaking it down into lay mans terms. Maybe this will be more palatable. the length of 0-1 = 1 the length of 0-2 = 2 to find the number of points in a given length for a given distance between those points you take the total length divided by the length of the distance between those points however when calculating an infinite number of points in a given length you end up dividing by 0 because there can be no distance between each of the points. Otherwise you would get a finite number of points between the lengths. 1/0 on a positive number line = infinity 2/0 on a positive number line also = infinity which is what we expect because we stated that we wanted an infinite number of points and to compare the quantity of them According to all the math 1/0=2/0 thus there are the same number of points between 0 through 1 as there are through 0 through two.
Which was why i was trying to help out previously by explaining that sigma for varying functions can be divergent or convergent even though there is an infinite number of values is in consideration. e and pie are both convergent infinite sums. this in turn implies that you can have infinite expansion even within an infinite length. Yes i haven't cited any of this. No these are not my ideas. Yes i am somewhat awkward when it comes to writing. Math is math and while other men may have shown it to the world it's principles were written long before those men graced us with its meaning. /* PLUG: http://plug.org, #utah on irc.freenode.net Unsubscribe: http://plug.org/mailman/options/plug Don't fear the penguin. */
