0 ?@$&>~ i.4
Does that help?
Thanks,
--
Raul
On Thu, Jul 7, 2016 at 10:06 AM, 'Pascal Jasmin' via Programming
<programm...@jsoftware.com> wrote:
> I'd like to see an example.
>
>
>
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: Raul Miller <rauldmil...@gmail.com>
> To: Programming forum <programm...@jsoftware.com>
> Sent: Thursday, July 7, 2016 9:59 AM
> Subject: Re: [Jprogramming] Use of (@) 'Atop'
>
> Only for this example.
>
> I can construct other examples where ?@ and ?@: give different results.
>
> Do you see why?
>
> Thanks,
>
> --
> Raul
>
>
> On Thu, Jul 7, 2016 at 9:35 AM, 'Pascal Jasmin' via Programming
> <programm...@jsoftware.com> wrote:
>> ? (2,y) $ 0 or u N v N
>>
>>
>> is more formally equivalent to
>>
>>
>> (2,y)?@:$ 0 or N u@:v N
>>
>>
>> but because ? is a rank 0 verb, ?@ and ?@: will always give the same result.
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> ----- Original Message -----
>> From: Martin Kreuzer <i...@airkreuzer.com>
>> To: programm...@jsoftware.com
>> Sent: Thursday, July 7, 2016 8:37 AM
>> Subject: [Jprogramming] Use of (@) 'Atop'
>>
>> Hi all -
>>
>> Approximating Pi using the Monte Carlo method (circle enscribed in
>> unit square) came up with
>>
>> pia=. 13 : '(4 * y %~ +/ 1 >: +/ *: <: +: ? (2,y) $ 0)'("0)
>> (pia 10^(4+i.3)) ,:(4+i.3)
>> 3.1524 3.1438 3.14106
>> 4 5 6
>>
>> I then compared my version with the J verb at Rosetta Code and the
>> only difference I found was the use of 'Atop':
>>
>> piMC=: monad define "0
>> 4* y%~ +/ 1>: %: +/ *: <: +: (2,y) ?@$ 0
>> )
>>
>> Q:
>> What is the advantage (in this particular case) of using 'Atop'..?
>> ? (2,y) $ 0
>> vs
>> (2,y) ?@$ 0
>>
>> Thanks
>> -M
>>
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