if I want to apply a function F iteratively say 0, 1, 2, 3 .. N times
on y (and see
the individual results), I know I can do

F^: (i.N) y

But is this efficient or not? I.e., does the F^:3 uses the result of previously
calculated F^:2 ? Or are the calculations completely independent (as I guess)?
What's the idiomatic way to do this right?

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