Hello, if I want to apply a function F iteratively say 0, 1, 2, 3 .. N times on y (and see the individual results), I know I can do
F^: (i.N) y But is this efficient or not? I.e., does the F^:3 uses the result of previously calculated F^:2 ? Or are the calculations completely independent (as I guess)? What's the idiomatic way to do this right? Thanks Ruda ---------------------------------------------------------------------- For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm
