datatype i.0 integer datatype 0$0 boolean The encoding is different and some foreigns are sensitive to encoding.
FYI, -- Raul On Fri, Jan 12, 2018 at 12:06 AM, Ian Clark <[email protected]> wrote: > For years I've laboured under the delusion that nouns (i.0) and (0$0) are > identical in all respects, and will pass any tests designed to discriminate > between them. > > However 5!:5 can tell the difference: > > 5!:5 <'z' [z=: i.0 > > i.0 > > 5!:5 <'z' [z=: 0$0 > > 0$0 > > > Nor, it seems, is there any fooling it: > > 5!:5 <'z' [z=: 5}.5{.i.0 > > i.0 > > 5!:5 <'z' [z=: 6}.5{.i.0 > > i.0 > > 5!:5 <'z' [z=: 5}.5{.0$0 > > 0$0 > > 5!:5 <'z' [z=: 6}.5{.0$0 > > 0$0 > > > How does 5!:5 know? Is this Just One of Those Things? Or is there some > deliberate logic behind this subtle difference between (0$0) and (i.0)? > Does this difference emerge in other ways – ones which might impact > practical tasks? > ---------------------------------------------------------------------- > For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm ---------------------------------------------------------------------- For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm
