"ramacd" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > The thing that does tug at me, it is getting my head around how a dyadic > verb has an inverse. I think the same thing happens with #^:_1but I haven't > yet seen nor thought up a good explanation for how those inverse cases were > derived.
In the definition of ^: dyadic verbs (x f y) are treated as monads (x&f y), and inverted accordingly. You can similarly get powers of (x f~ y) from (f&x y). Unfortunately, (f b. _1) only provides the monadic case, and related mecahnisms (d. and t.) aren't similarly extended. (You CAN get the dyadic cases by explicitly bonding the left parameter, however). -- Mark D. Niemiec <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm
