Raul - it looks like you get the same answer (+1 because your sequence
starts at zero?) as I do with 2 different methods - simulation and the
binomial distribution; this also agrees with what John Randall got on this
one.
Would you care to explain how your method works? Looking at it briefly, it
makes sense but I am puzzled by the three "magic" numbers on the left.
Thanks,
Devon
On 4/8/08, Raul Miller <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
> This is a partial spoiler (or huge hint) for one of those problems
> 35 40 91 58 43 47 47 46 48 46 51 48 50 53 32 48 46 52 57 53
> 32 48 46 50 48 50 53 42 47 93 41 94 58 40 48 46 57 53 62 45
> 58 64 35 43 47 64 123 46 93 41 94 58 95 93 48 46 53 53 32 48
> 46 52 53{a.
>
>
> --
> Raul
> ----------------------------------------------------------------------
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>
--
Devon McCormick, CFA
^me^ at acm.
org is my
preferred e-mail
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