Steven Taylor wrote: > So <: still takes the x operand? Doesn't that mean it is dyadic, but > it's right operand is the result of verb immediately to the right? > > If <: still gets the x operand, I'm still puzzled.
It doesn't: x f...@g@h y = x (f...@g)@h y = (f...@g) x h y. Only the right hand verb (h) is dyadic. Best wishes, John ---------------------------------------------------------------------- For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm
