Raul Miller-4 wrote:
> 
> [...]
>> 1) the bident (v adv) is evaluated to produce the verb v/, and then
> 
> No.
> 
> The rule used here is Adverb, not Bident.
> 
> See http://www.jsoftware.com/help/dictionary/dicte.htm
> 
If you study the evaluation rules, you will realize why your objection
is profoundly irrelevant.


> [...]
>> The (version of Dan's) question now is: why 2) does not produce v/"
>> instead
>> of v/conj, or even 1) does not produce (v adv) instead of (v/)?
> 
> Do you understand the difference, now?
> 
The question raised in this thread is: why is there any difference?


[...]
> But, of course A was defined as v/conj
> (the conjunction conj curried with the left
> verb v/).  and conj had been changed
> from " to @
> 
> In other words, conj gets evaluated
> when A is evaluated.
> 
Indeed. So, why does not conj get evaluated when A is defined rather
than evaluated?  The example was to demonstrate the lack of the
referential transparency in the latter case.


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