On Sat, May 21, 2011 at 2:11 AM, Roger Hui <[email protected]> wrote: > For y an extended precision number, ?y is computed > by t=.?y1 where y1 is a little bigger than y, > repeating until t is less than y. (The same y1 > is used for a given y.) Assuming that ?m produces > uniform random numbers between 0 and m-1, does > this process give uniform random numbers between > 0 and y-1?
yes: if they were not uniformly random then ?m could not have been uniformly random. -- Raul ---------------------------------------------------------------------- For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm
