You can do
(~.@, f@{:)^:_ y
But I am not sure how to work <x into this.
--
Raul
On Sun, Nov 20, 2011 at 5:36 AM, David Vaughan <[email protected]
> wrote:
> If I'm doing f^:(<x) y, can I write an expression so that f is repeatedly
> applied to y until the result has come up before?
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