On 3/10/07, Jon Ribbens <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> I see you snipped without response my request to back up your claim
> that "assuming that a date() is a datetime() with a time of midnight
> will clearly break that logic".
>
> Am I to assume you cannot back it up?
I was trying to minimize the extent of this already too long thread,
assuming you could go do the reading I referred you to if you were
really interested in the answer. I still encourage you to read the
reference, but for your sake, here's a brief example of temporal logic
that would break::
We know that:
date(2006, 1, 1) *Includes* datetime(2006, 1, 1, 0, 0, 1)
And under your definition
date(2006, 1, 1) *Is Simultaneous With* datetime(2006, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0)
But that's a contradiction because
datetime(2006, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0) *Does Not Include* datetime(2006, 1,
1, 0, 0, 1)
Hope that helps,
STeVe
--
I'm not *in*-sane. Indeed, I am so far *out* of sane that you appear a
tiny blip on the distant coast of sanity.
--- Bucky Katt, Get Fuzzy
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