Rocco Moretti wrote: > Steve Holden wrote: > >>> On Fri, 07 Oct 2005 00:33:43 -0000, Grant Edwards <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> >>> wrote: > > >>>> For example: In British English one uses a plural verb when the >>>> subject consists of more than one person. Sports teams, >>>> government departments, states, corporations etc. are grammatically >>>> plural. In American, the verb agrees with the >>>> word that is the subject, not how many people are denoted by >>>> that word. >> >> >> There aren't any universal rules, except possibly "British people >> speak English while Americans don't". > > > I believe you overgeneralize. :) > > A Welshman would likely be offended if you implied he spoke English, and > the Scots are notorious for only speaking English when they have too. (I > remember a news story some years back about a Scottish "lad" who was > fined/imprisoned for replying to an official court representative with > "Aye" rather than "Yes".) For that matter there are plenty of people in > Cornwall and even in London (Cockney) who speak something that is only > called "English" for lack of a better term. >
So English is spoken only in the South East of England, except London? I think you should also disbar the queen (unless she's already classified as a Londoner), due to her apparent confusion between the 1st person singular and 1st person plural :-). Duncan -- http://mail.python.org/mailman/listinfo/python-list
