On Tue, Sep 16, 2008 at 10:55 AM, Niklas Uhrberg <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > The typical use case is to invoke methods on an entity and it would use > the data belonging to the Association(s) only internally. > Another use case is that a client (MortgageManager) indeed gets data > belonging to Association(s) directly from the Association but this will > start > by obtaining the Association from the originating Entity in the first > place. Therefore the need for an "owner" property doesn't arise.
Hmmm... Assume for a second that "Employee" is a Association between a Company (subtype of Employer) and a Person, and we have LabourUnion that is doing some arbitrage for the Employee. But why would LabourUnion have the right to obtain the Employee relationship in the Company. It wouldn't, so the LabourUnion will be provided with both the Employee and the Employer instances, which technically speaking may not be related... It just seems 'bad practice' to me. I.e. If something ties N parties together, why would you provide the separate instances to something that understand those as a group? Cheers Niclas _______________________________________________ qi4j-dev mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ops4j.org/mailman/listinfo/qi4j-dev
