On Fri, Apr 26, 2002 at 04:34:51PM -0400, Ed Abrams wrote: 
> I have a weird question.  Suppose that you have something like this: Client
> C, using Email Client E, sending email message M, via his ISP SMTP relay S,
> to user at host T.  That's all normal.  But here is where things get
> interesting.
> 
> Suppose that T does not have an MX record, but *does* have a CNAME alias to
> a host R.  Thus, when S looks up the MX for T, nothing comes back.  My
> questions:
> 
> 1) does a standard govern what happens?

yes, S should rewrite the recipient's address domain part to what the CNAME
pomits to and deliver to the server listed in the MX records for the CNAME
target otr its A-record if no MXes exist.
yes, CNAMEs are evil.

> 2) will *all* SMTP relays, including S, look up the MX record for R, *NOT*
> the A record?

should be: MX and fall back to A if no MX exists.

> 3) will *all* SMTP relays, including S, look up the A record for R, *NOT*
> the MX record?

if and only if there is no MX record for R.

> 4) if neither 2 nor 3, is it that neither *ever* happens, or rather, that
> sometimes it's done like 3 and sometimes like 2?

???

> This question strikes me as independent of other questions for which the
> appropriate response is 'RTFM.'  Thanks for your help,

RFC2821.

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