On Mar 22, 10:38 pm, [EMAIL PROTECTED] (Danny Mayer) wrote: > > I've been going under the assumption that anyhthing with NTPv3, mode > > 1, and precision -6 is a w32time system not configured with the 0x8 > > client mode identifier. > > > Couldn't one also assume that any system which sends a mode-1 packet > > to an ntpd server and is not explicitly identified with a "peer" > > directive should recieve a server-mode reply? > > No.
I believe what I wrote was unclear; I meant that when ALL of the conditions I mentioned in both paragraphs are satisfied, we should not mobilize a symmetric association. That is, when a packet is received that is: 1) NTPv3 and 2) has precision -6 and 3) is mode 1 (symmetric active) and 4) and is not from an explicitly configured peer ...we assume it is from a mis-configured w32time system, and mobilize a transient association and send a server-mode reply instead of a symmetric passive association. Is this what the "windows hack" code already does? What criteria does it use? _______________________________________________ questions mailing list [email protected] https://lists.ntp.org/mailman/listinfo/questions
