People,
If Test 1 estimates the likelihood of Population A of being Type Z as
60% and if a completely separate and unrelated Test 2 estimates the
likelihood of Population A of being Type Z as 70%, is the likelihood
that Population A being Type Z raised above 70% ?
My gut feeling is that if the results of the two tests are greater than
50% and the two tests are unrelated, the actual likelihood should be
more than the mean of the two tests.
Thanks,
Phil.
--
Philip Rhoades
GPO Box 3411
Sydney NSW 2001
Australia
E-mail: p...@pricom.com.au
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