Hi,
I am puzzled by the relationship between the p-values asociated with the coefficients of a univariate logistic regression involving categorical variables and the p-value I get from Fisher's exact test of the associated 2 x 2 contingency table.
(1) The 2-sided p-value for the table is ~ 0.0015, whereas the p-value for the independent is 0.101 and the p-value for the intercept is ~0.56.
(2) I know the the coefficient for the independent is the ln(OR) (assuming I recall correctly). Most accounts I've seen ignore the intercept, say it's hard to interpret, or give an interpretation (with respect to the dataset as a single group) that I can't square with the interpretation of beta[1].
Thanks for help for redirection.
-- Roy Wilson Learning Research Development Center University of Pittsburgh webpage: www.pitt.edu/~rwilson email: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
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