I think males are z times more likely to show such symptom, where: z=(1+exp(6.493-5.711))/(1+exp(-5.711))
Is this right? Thanks! Ed. --- Haibo Huang <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > Hi, > > I just ran the following logit regression. But can > anyone tell me how to calculate how much more likely > males (Male=1) could show such symptom than > females(Male=0)? I know it must be simple to get > once > I have the coefficients, but I just don't recall. > Thank you very much! > > Call: > glm(formula = Symptoms ~ 1 + Male, family = > binomial(link = logit), > data = HA) > Deviance Residuals: > Min 1Q Median 3Q > > Max > -6.038e+03 -2.067e-06 0.000e+00 0.000e+00 > 6.720e+03 > Coefficients: > Estimate Std. Error z value > Pr(>|z|) > (Intercept) 5.711e+00 8.466e-02 6.746e+01 > > <2e-16 *** > Male -6.493e+00 8.540e-02 -7.603e+01 > <2e-16 > *** > > > Best, > Ed > > ______________________________________________ > [email protected] mailing list > https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help > PLEASE do read the posting guide! > http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html > ______________________________________________ [email protected] mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help PLEASE do read the posting guide! http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html
