A colleague here at U.N.B. has provided a counter example for me. So
the conjecture (that the existance of the ``product limit'' is
implied by the existance of the limits involving the first three
powers) is false.
If anyone is interested in the details, they should contact me
off-list.
My apologies for confusing everyone with my initial mis-statement of
the problem.
cheers,
Rolf Turner
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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