Ian

In my example I take it with the intent of temporarily depriving the 
owner.  Only six months!  If that's enough for 'theft' aka 'larceny', the 
why does the wording include 'permanent'.  I agree with your common sense 
interpretation, Ian, but I can't explain the legal wording.  I'm not a 
lawyer.  

BL

On Thursday, February 1, 2018 at 1:49:19 PM UTC-8, Ian A wrote:
>
> In your example, Bill, that would be taking something with the intent to 
> deprive it from the owner, even if only for a period of time,which would be 
> an offense.  The CL poster has openly declared his intention and he would 
> probably be able to demonstrate to police or the actual owner that he 
> believed the bicycle was abandoned following a theft and out of civic duty 
> wanted to make the bicycle safe in order to return it to it's owner.
>
> This is definitely made complicated by the cutting of the lock. However, 
> if he and ill intention and wanted to ultimately keep the bike, he could 
> have dropped it off at a police station, not mentioned the cutting of the 
> lock and then in three months time or whatever, made a finder's claim for 
> the bicycle. 
>
> The CL lister's heart seems to be very much in the right place. He;s 
> actually taken a bit of a risk in being charged with theft in order to help 
> someone. Maybe he should have simply reported it to the police and left it 
> at that, but realistically, the police would likely have done nothing.
>
> IanA/Canada
>
>
> On Thursday, February 1, 2018 at 12:23:26 PM UTC-7, Bill Lindsay wrote:
>>
>> Interesting. It isn’t theft if you take something that isn’t yours but 
>> don’t intend to permanently deprive the owner of the property.   
>>
>> So I could take a bike that isn’t mine, use it for six months and put it 
>> back where I ‘found’ it without committing theft?  Is there a different 
>> statute I’ve broken in that situation?   
>>
>> Bill Lindsay 
>> El Cerrito Ca
>
>

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