I hope you're not suggesting that Gordon Brown might be wondering out loud
who will rid him of this meddlesome priest?

On Feb 7, 2008 3:15 PM, Robert O brien <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

>  Of course, in Britain the conflict regarding church law and government
> law goes back to the conflict regarding Becket Archbishop of Canterbury and
> Henry II regarding which  court will try two minor priests concerning
> charged with murder.  That led to a group of knights killing Becket in his
> cathedral.
>
> Robert O'Brien
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> *From:* Vance R. Koven <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> *To:* Law & Religion issues for Law Academics <religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
> *Sent:* Thursday, February 07, 2008 12:55 PM
> *Subject:* Archbishop Williams and Sharia Courts
>
> I love pregnant controversies like this. The Archbishop of Canterbury has
> endorsed the idea of allowing, to some undefined extent, separate legal
> systems apply to different religious and cultural groups in Britain, notably
> Sharia law for Muslims.
>
> News story here:
> http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/uk_news/7232661.stm
>
> While the UK, like the US, supports parties' ability to stipulate that a
> particular dispute may be submitted to religious courts so long as they
> consent and there are no other social externalities, to what extent can a
> constitutionally bound polity permit such things if not all parties consent,
> or if a party withdraws consent? And to what extent should secular courts
> recognize the judgments of religious courts when the outcomes transgress
> certain public policies of the state? And to what extent should the parties'
> agreement to apply religious law govern an action in a secular court (and if
> it's like a choice-of-law clause in a contract, how is the applicable law
> "proven")?
>
> One tends to think about the deference paid to commercial arbitration
> under the Federal Arbitration Act, but even there a court need not enforce
> an award that contravenes public policy, and there are some rather fine
> distinctions drawn about when a court will strike an arbitration clause. At
> the same time, courts have permitted arbitrators to hear and decide claims
> under regulatory statutes like the antitrust laws and the securities laws.
>
> Without a written constitution, it may be difficult to ascertain how far
> such deference (in the case of religious courts) could go in the UK. Are
> there limits in the US beyond the limits to which parties can make
> contracts?
>
> Vance
>
> --
> Vance R. Koven
> Boston, MA USA
> [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
> ------------------------------
>
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-- 
Vance R. Koven
Boston, MA USA
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
_______________________________________________
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