I appreciate Jim's argument, and also the arguments that the 
problem with the exemption isn't discrimination in favor of religion, but 
rather the burden on third parties, regardless of whether the exemption is only 
for the religious.  (I hope to respond to those arguments soon.)

                But as to the point below -- and assuming that a RFRA employer 
mandate exemption that covers secular conscientious objectors is as 
constitutional as the conscientious objector draft exemption -- wouldn't the 
canon of interpreting statutes to avoid unconstitutionality (even setting aside 
constitutional "doubt") be relevant here?  It's true that RFRA generally 
endorses Sherbert and Yoder and other federal cases, and in the absence of an 
Establishment Clause objection it might well be interpreted to apply only to 
religious objectors.  But if indeed such an interpretation would lead to a 
finding that RFRA is unconstitutional, wouldn't that cut pretty strongly in 
favor of avoiding that interpretation, and including secular philosophical 
objectors?  The language isn't as clearly hostile to such an interpretation as 
the language in the draft law was in Welsh.  And, as I noted, the other broad 
federal religious accommodation regime -- the Title VII religious accommodation 
provision -- has largely been read by lower courts as covering secular 
philosophical objectors as well as religious ones.  Why wouldn't that, coupled 
with the avoidance of unconstitutionality canon, counsel in favor of a 
constitutionally permissible interpretation rather than a constitutionally 
impermissible one?

                Eugene

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of James Oleske
Sent: Monday, December 02, 2013 8:11 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: The Establishment Clause, burden on others, the employer mandate, 
and the draft

Eugene -- One question about this passage from your message:

"I take it that RFRA could likewise be interpreted to apply to philosophical 
conscientious beliefs."
Could such an interpretation of RFRA be squared with its stated purpose of 
restoring the protection of free exercise as set forth in Yoder, which said 
that philosophic beliefs were not protected under the Free Exercise Clause?
"[I]if the Amish asserted their claims because of their subjective evaluation 
and rejection of the contemporary secular values accepted by the majority, much 
as Thoreau rejected the social values of his time and isolated himself at 
Walden Pond, their claims would not rest on a religious basis. Thoreau's choice 
was philosophical and personal rather than religious, and such belief does not 
rise to the demands of the Religion Clauses." - Yoder at 216.

Of course, as you note, the Court had to twist the language of the 
conscientious objector exemption to apply it to philosophic conscientious 
beliefs, but it's hard to imagine today's Court engaging in the same type of 
(non) textual analysis.

- Jim

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