I once wrote an article, "Testimonial Privileges and the Preferences of 
Friendship," 1984 DUKE LAW JOURNAL 631-662 (1984), the general thesis of which 
is that there is no truly plausible general theory of such privileges. (The 
title, incidentally, comes from Rousseau, who wrote that the "preferences of 
friendship are thefts committed against the fatherland.   All men are our 
brothers; all should be our friends."  No doubt there's something scary in that 
notion, but it also captures the often-arbitrary partiality in allowing a small 
subset of individuals to refuse to offer evidence of criminal (or even 
tortious) behavior.   But if one does defend such partialities and loyalties, 
then why must one be married, for example (especially in the modern world) to 
get an "intimacy" privilege, and why, exactly, do family members (other than 
spouses) have no privileges?  Well-off people can go to psychiatrists, while 
less well-off talk to their bartenders and hairdressers (or, simply, best 
friends or workmates, none of whom are covered.  Are nurse-practitioners (who 
will play an increasingly important role in the delivery of medical services) 
covered (a genuine, not a rhetorical, question, since I don't know what the 
answer is, and if it varies state by state, do we really expect ordinary people 
to realize whether they are protected or not)?   In that article, I offered the 
thought-experiment of "privilege tickets," a limited number of which we would 
get when we turned 18 and could distribute throughout our lifetimes to those we 
wished to immunize from state inquiries.

Maybe the real question is what is contained within Chip's "etc."  If there are 
literally dozens of privileges, then one can engage in a gestalt switch and say 
that it is discriminating against the clergy to deny them what
A-Y get.  But if we're really talking about a small subset of people (none of 
whom get the kind of "absolute privilege" that the clergy apparently get), then 
I must say it looks an awful lot like Establishment to me, and I find Eugene's 
reference to the Texas Monthly case very persuasive.

sandy

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Ira Lupu
Sent: Tuesday, December 03, 2013 10:39 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: The clergy-penitent privilege and burdens on third parties

And the clergy-penitent privilege is one of many such privileges -- 
doctor-patient, lawyer-client, spousal privilege, etc.  They are designed to 
encourage communication within relationships the law values.  So this example 
is like Walz -- it does not involve special treatment for religion.  It is that 
kind of special treatment that triggers the concern for third party harms 
(Estate of Thornton v. Caldor).

On Tue, Dec 3, 2013 at 10:05 PM, Douglas Laycock 
<dlayc...@virginia.edu<mailto:dlayc...@virginia.edu>> wrote:
Eugene's hypothetical presumably describes some of the cases, from the least 
sophisticated or most desperate penitents. But it probably doesn't describe 
very many; most penitents rely on the privilege, and few would confess to their 
priest if priests were routinely testifying against folks who confessed. The 
word would obviously get around to perps that this is what priests do when you 
confess.

So the plaintiff in Eugene's lawsuit really hasn't lost anything; the privilege 
deprives her only of evidence that would not exist but for the privilege.

Meanwhile, the priest does some good, in at least some of the cases, toward 
encouraging reform or even restitution. In the original American case on the 
privilege, the priest had recovered the stolen goods and returned them to the 
owner.

On Wed, 4 Dec 2013 02:37:42 +0000
 "Levinson, Sanford V" 
<slevin...@law.utexas.edu<mailto:slevin...@law.utexas.edu>> wrote:
>This is an excellent hypothetical.  My own inclination is that the only 
>justification for a clergy-penitent privilege is a) if there is a duty to 
>confess to a member of the clergy; and b) if the clergy in question believes 
>that God will punish disclosure of the confession.  (It shouldn't be enough 
>that the doctrine of the religion prevents disclosure unless divine punishment 
>is thought to attend it.)   I have argued for some years that the only defense 
>of religious privileges is the belief on the part of the claimant that 
>commission of the act in question will generate divine sanctions.  This is 
>probably too strict, since I (still) support the critique of Smith, and I have 
>no reason to believe that the ingestion of peyote was a divine command 
>violation of which would generate some kind of punishment (including 
>punishment in the world to come).  But Eugene's hypo makes very real the costs 
>to innocent third parties of treating any and all members of the clergy 
>differently from
  one's
>best friends, fellow family members, or even, in most courts, reporters.
>
>sandy
>
>From: 
>religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu> 
>[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu>]
> On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
>Sent: Tuesday, December 03, 2013 7:39 PM
>To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics 
>(religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>)
>Subject: The clergy-penitent privilege and burdens on third parties
>
>                One more question about the "unconstitutional burdens on third 
> parties" theory:  The clergy-penitent privilege allows the clergy (and 
> penitents) to refuse to testify about penitential communications, even when 
> the result is that a litigant is deprived of potentially highly probative 
> evidence.
>
>What's more, this is a specifically identifiable litigant who is being denied 
>the benefit of applying the normal duty to testify.  And, unlike with the 
>conscientious objector exemption, the clergy-penitent exemption is indeed 
>limited to religious communications, with no secular philosophical analog.  
>(The psychotherapist-patient privilege, I think, is quite different, partly 
>because it requires communications to someone who is licensed by the state, 
>requires a state-prescribed course of training, and is usually quite 
>expensive, and partly because it tends to have fewer exceptions.)
>
>Say, then, there are two people.  Anita works for an employer who (by 
>hypothesis) has been exempted from the usually applicable (with some secular 
>exemptions) employer mandate as a result of a statutory religious objector 
>exemption.  As a result, she doesn't get, say, $500/year worth of 
>contraceptive benefits that she would have been legally entitled to but for 
>the employer mandate.
>
>Barbara is suing Don Defendant for $500,000.  She has reason to think that Don 
>has confessed to Carl Clergyman that Don is indeed liable, so she wants Carl 
>to be ordered to testify about the communication.  But Carl has been exempted 
>from the usually applicable (with some secular exemptions) duty to testify as 
>a result of a statutory clergy-congregant privilege.  As a result, she doesn't 
>win the $500,000 that she would have been legally entitled to but for the 
>clergy-congregant privilege.
>
>Is the application of the clergy-congregant exemption from the duty to testify 
>in Barbara's case an Establishment Clause violation, on the grounds that it 
>imposes an excessive burden on Barbara?  And if it isn't, then why would the 
>application of the hypothetical exemption from the employer mandate an 
>Establishment Clause violation in Anita's case?
>
>Eugene
Douglas Laycock
Robert E. Scott Distinguished Professor of Law
University of Virginia Law School
580 Massie Road
Charlottesville, VA  22903
     434-243-8546
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--
Ira C. Lupu
F. Elwood & Eleanor Davis Professor of Law, Emeritus
George Washington University Law School
2000 H St., NW
Washington, DC 20052
(202)994-7053
My SSRN papers are here:
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=181272#reg
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