Dear Alan and Chip -

Your conversation is (natch!) insightful and helpful.  For what it's worth, it 
is not clear to me (putting aside things the Supreme Court may or may not have 
said or meant) that either the Establishment Clause or whatever theories of 
church-state relations and religious-freedom-under-law our Constitution 
reflects disallow accommodations that "impose[] substantial costs on . . . the 
public."

Why should we regard it as an "establishment" of religion for the government to 
decide - that is, for (a majority-ish of) "us" to decide that it is "worth it" 
to structure an otherwise generally applicable regulatory-and-spending regime 
in such a way that its operation does not impose avoidable burdens on religious 
exercise, even when the "expense" the community is real?  (To ask this is 
different, it seems to me, than to ask about accommodations that take the form 
of lifting a burden from A and moving it, directly and particularly, to B.  I 
had understood the Gedicks et al. objection to Hobby Lobby's RFRA claim to be 
asking about these.)

I agree, certainly, that "religion is different" but it seems to me that this 
difference is reflected *both* through the rule against "establishments" (and I 
know we would disagree about precisely what constitutes an "establishment" and 
what does not) *and* through an admittedly not-uniform tradition (even if not 
through Free Exercise Clause doctrine) of accommodating religion, religious 
objections, and religious exercise when it's possible to do so.  In our 
tradition, I think, "religious freedom" is not just a private benefit - 
something that is conferred on particular beneficiaries - but also a public 
good - something we are, as a political community, allowed and even encouraged 
to pursue, promote, and if necessary pay for.  Do you disagree, or am I reading 
too much into Alan's mention of "the public"?

All the best,

Rick

Richard W. Garnett
Professor of Law and Concurrent Professor of Political Science
Director, Program on Church, State & Society
Notre Dame Law School
P.O. Box 780
Notre Dame, Indiana 46556-0780
574-631-6981 (w)
574-276-2252 (cell)
rgarn...@nd.edu<mailto:rgarn...@nd.edu>

To download my scholarly papers, please visit my SSRN 
page<http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=342235>

Blogs:

Prawfsblawg<http://prawfsblawg.blogs.com/>
Mirror of Justice<http://mirrorofjustice.blogs.com/>

Twitter:  @RickGarnett<https://twitter.com/RickGarnett>

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Alan Brownstein
Sent: Friday, February 21, 2014 1:22 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: recommended Hobby Lobby posts


These are very helpful responses, Chip. Let me try to use them to identify and 
clarify where I think we agree and disagree.



1. I agree that Religion is different and the Establishment Clause is part of 
what makes it different. The fact that free speech doctrine requires government 
to allow the exercise of a right even when doing so imposes substantial costs 
on third parties or the public does not mean that religious accommodations can 
impose a similar magnitude of costs on third parties or the public without 
violating the Establishment Clause. I also agree that the Establishment Clause 
limit is hard to identify, but it is certainly there and operates as a 
constraint on accommodations. But my example wasn't intended to suggest that 
the magnitude of costs acceptable in free speech cases parallels the magnitude 
of permissible costs for Establishment Clause purposes. My point was that the 
way we measure costs should operate the same way for both free speech and 
Establishment Clause purposes. In both cases, harm should be evaluated by 
determining the cost of mitigation, not by evaluating the cost of unmitigated 
consequences. If a religious group was going to engage in an unpopular ritual 
-- an animal sacrifice, for example -- and the state wanted to prohibit it from 
doing so to avoid disorder, property damage etc. caused by people who wanted to 
stop the ritual from happening, the state's interest in a RFRA type case should 
be measured in the same way it would be measured in a free speech case -- by 
determining the cost of providing sufficient police to maintain order. Costs 
that are tolerated under the free speech clause may violate the Establishment 
Clause, but we ought to measure them the same way.



2. Here is where we disagree. I don't think the fact that the government is 
unwilling (or is too politically dysfunctional) to adopt a less restrictive 
alternative allows the state to satisfy strict scrutiny review by insisting 
that otherwise feasible less restrictive alternatives are not politically 
available. Consider my prior example about an unpopular speaker. Suppose the 
state asserts that it has a compelling state interest in avoiding the disorder 
that will result from the speaker's public speech. Assume further that a court 
determines that a less restrictive way to further that interest without 
silencing the speaker is to provide adequate police protection to the unpopular 
speaker to maintain order. I don't think the state's attorney can insist that 
it has to be allowed to silence the speaker because the city council would 
never authorize police overtime to protect a speaker with such odious views. I 
just don't see how a less restrictive alternative test can be meaningfully 
applied if political unwillingness to adopt a less restrictive alternative will 
be taken to mean that the less restrictive alternative is unavailable and 
should not be considered by courts.



If the Court finds in favor of Hobby Lobby, I think it basically holds that if 
government wants to provide contraceptive insurance coverage for the employees 
of religious employers, it has to choose some way to do that other than by 
substantially burdening the religious liberty of the religious employers. I 
don't think that application of RFRA violates the Establishment Clause. I think 
it leaves the government with several policy choices that avoid violating the 
Establishment Clause. From a policy perspective, there is only one good choice 
-- providing an alternative source of insurance coverage. I think the other 
choices range from bad to terrible -- amending RFRA to exclude the 
contraceptive mandate, expanding RFRA to include non-religious objectors (which 
might mitigate Establishment Clause concerns), repealing the contraceptive 
mandate etc.  But I don't see how applying RFRA in a way that leaves the 
government with these alternatives violates the Establishment Clause. Given how 
much I favor the mandate on policy grounds, I wish I did. But I don't.



3. I agree the lines are not bright. But that may be the limit of our agreement 
here. Caldor and Amos as well as Harding all involve employment in one way or 
another. And I don't read any of these cases (or Cutter) as suggesting than any 
accommodation that imposes more than de minimis costs on third parties violates 
the Establishment Clause. You are right that I don't like the de minimis 
standard used in Title VII cases. But that is a statutory standard which does 
not reach the limit of what the Establishment Clause permits. Several states, 
including California, have workplace accommodation statutes that provide 
greater protection to religious employees, and correspondingly impose 
potentially higher costs on employers, than Title VII. Is it your view, Chip, 
that these state statutes violate the Establishment Clause?



Moreover, and here is another place where we probably disagree, I don't really 
consider the contraceptive mandate to be a regulation of employer-employee 
relations, like the employment discrimination provisions of Title VII or 
various labor law statutes.  I think the Affordable Care Act is a health 
insurance law, not an employer-employee relations law. Both the goal and the 
operational design of the Affordable Care Act are directed toward providing 
affordable health insurance to all Americans whether they are employed or not. 
Employers are used as a conduit to achieve that health insurance objective for 
some Americans-- but that is incidental to the ultimate purpose of the 
legislation which is aimed at all Americans, not just employees. If the 
contraceptive mandate is viewed as a part of the massive government involvement 
in arranging for the provision of affordable health care, at least some of 
which -- through the expansion of Medicaid -- involves the government providing 
health care coverage directly, it doesn't seem particularly assymetrical to me 
to suggest that the government itself should shoulder the burden of providing 
contraceptive insurance coverage to the employees of religious employers.



Alan



________________________________
From: 
religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu> 
[religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] on behalf of Ira Lupu [icl...@law.gwu.edu]
Sent: Thursday, February 20, 2014 3:44 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: recommended Hobby Lobby posts
Very good questions, Alan. Three replies (in reverse order of your questions):

1.  Other rights contexts (like free speech) where third party costs are 
present -- Religion is different.  The Establishment Clause is a limit on the 
government's power to authorize one party to act on religious beliefs in ways 
that harm others.   Government vigorously protects labor speech in the 
workplace, even though it may lead workers to unionize and cost employers money 
(way more than de minimis in some cases).   But Thornton v. Caldor explicitly, 
and the Title VII line of cases about religious accommodation (in these, 
implicitly) impose limits on the power of A to shift costs to B to protect A's 
religious commitments.

2.  Less restrictive means (and the power of government to provide 
contraceptive services directly to employees of firms that refuse to insure for 
coverage of those services).  If Hobby Lobby wins, its female employees, and 
the female dependents of all employees, will lose the controverted coverage.  
For some of them, that will mean they cannot afford the safest and most 
effective contraception (perhaps a hormonal IUD, close to $1000 initial 
outlay).  That the government can/might/should fill the gap for these employees 
cannot be a sufficient reason to accept Hobby Lobby's RFRA claim, because the 
government may very well NOT fill the gap. Imagine the politics of the 
gap-filling legislation -- a public option, government financed, for 
contraceptives that some people believe are abortifacients.  Likely to be 
enacted sometime soon?  And if government does not fill that gap, then these 
women and others similarly situated take the full brunt of the loss.   They 
will not have the coverage that, within a few years, almost every woman in the 
U.S. will have. That consequence presents a serious Establishment Clause 
problem, and RFRA should be construed to avoid it.

3.  Why de minimis?  Why not allow even more than de minimis cost-shifting when 
the burden on the objecting company or its owners is substantial?  As we know 
from Caldor, Cutter, Texas Monthly, and Amos, the lines here are not bright.  
How much cost-shifting is more than the Establishment Clause will tolerate is a 
matter of degree.  The beauty of "de minimis" as the line is 1) it comes from a 
relevant body of law, related to employer-employee relations,  2) it therefore 
arrives with legal momentum and quantitative precedent; and 3) it offers 
symmetry between employees and employers re: how much cost each can impose on 
the other.  (Alan, you might prefer the Title VII standard for religious 
accommodation to be more generous to employees than "de minimis."  But that's 
not the law.)

Chip

On Thu, Feb 20, 2014 at 4:26 PM, Alan Brownstein 
<aebrownst...@ucdavis.edu<mailto:aebrownst...@ucdavis.edu>> wrote:
With regard to Jim's post (and Chip and Bob's piece), I appreciate the argument 
that in employment cases RFRA should be interpreted the same way that Title VII 
has been interpreted  --- essentially denying all RFRA claims that would impose 
more than  de minimis costs on third parties or the public. But I have several 
questions about it.

First, if we accept Chip and Bob's argument that accommodating Hobby Lobby 
would impose significant and serious costs on third parties, resolving this 
case against Hobby Lobby doesn't require an interpretation of RFRA that is as 
limiting as the one that they propose.  Aren't there harms that are more than 
de minimis, yet not sufficiently costly to justify the substantial burdening of 
religious liberty?

Second, exactly why should the scope of RFRA be so drastically constrained in 
employment cases? What  distinguishes these kinds of cases from other 
accommodation cases - many of which will also impose some costs on third 
parties, the state, or the general public?

Third, many commentators have argued that the cost of accommodating Hobby Lobby 
should be construed to be the cost of the government setting up an alternative 
insurance framework for providing contraceptive coverage for the employees of 
religiously exempt employers. The literal cost of doing so may not be very 
high. There are ways of conditioning the granting of any accommodation to 
offset whatever those costs may be to a considerable extent. Providing 
insurance coverage would not require administratively complex, individualized 
interventions by the government. And, for many of us, the government providing 
health care coverage is the most desirable and efficient way of extending 
health insurance coverage in our society in the first place. The use of 
employers as a conduit for providing coverage provides few if any advantages in 
comparison to a government insurance program. So if we are focusing on the cost 
of accommodating Hobby Lobby, why isn't this the cost we should be evaluating.

Typically in other rights contexts, we focus on the cost of mitigation, not the 
potential harm of unmitigated consequences. Thus, if an unpopular speaker wants 
to speak in a location where his message is likely to poorly received, the 
government cannot silence the speaker on the grounds that allowing him to speak 
would cause disorder and damage to property or persons. Instead, the harm would 
be the cost of hiring sufficient police and public safety personnel to maintain 
order at the event. Typically, except in the most egregious cases, the 
government does not have a compelling state interest in avoiding those 
financial costs of mitigation.

Alan



--
Ira C. Lupu
F. Elwood & Eleanor Davis Professor of Law, Emeritus
George Washington University Law School
2000 H St., NW
Washington, DC 20052
(202)994-7053
Co-author (with Professor Robert Tuttle) of "Secular Government, Religious 
People" (forthcoming, summer 2014, Wm. B. Eerdmans Pub. Co.)
My SSRN papers are here:
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=181272#reg
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