I think that both Doug and Marty are right in their analyses. And, for the 
record, it was an "uncommonly silly law."

Sandy

Sent from my iPhone

On Oct 19, 2014, at 8:46 PM, Marty Lederman 
<lederman.ma...@gmail.com<mailto:lederman.ma...@gmail.com>> wrote:

Recall Scalia's basic account in Smith, to wit:  We've been making noises since 
1964 about "compelling interests" and "narrow tailoring," but come on . . . of 
course we didn't really mean it:  We've been hypocrites, using the language of 
strict scrutiny but in fact applying nothing of the sort.  And we'd be wrong to 
apply it, since that would allow religious believers to be "laws unto 
themselves."  If we actually applied strict scrutiny, it would lead to results 
that everyone would agree are absurd and not compelled by the Constitution.

And Scalia is now saying -- as do at least four, perhaps five, Justices in 
Hobby Lobby -- that Congress has instructed us to do that which we had never 
done pre-Smith, i.e., actually apply strict scrutiny.  I warned you that that 
would be ridiculous and lead to convulsive, absurd results; but you ignored me, 
and the legislature was stupid enough to invoke the language we had used, not 
the doctrine we had been applying in fact.  If you really wanted to 
re-instantiate the jurisprudence as it existed pre-Smith, you should have 
chosen much different language.

On Sun, Oct 19, 2014 at 3:18 PM, Levinson, Sanford V 
<slevin...@law.utexas.edu<mailto:slevin...@law.utexas.edu>> wrote:
I don't share Chip's seeming consternation. Is this any different from 
references to "an unusually stupid law" (Stewart as I recall in Griswold, 
though it might have been Black, who also distanced himself) or Thomas in 
Lawrence or, for that matter, Holmes in Lochner, depending on whether one 
thinks that he found New York's law "tyrannical"?  How is this different from 
expressing great admiration for a given part of the Constitution instead of 
simply saying "my job is to enforce its commands even if I consider them stupid 
or even pernicious"?  Scalia should get a pass on this one.

Sandy

Sent from my iPhone

On Oct 19, 2014, at 7:37 PM, Ira Lupu 
<icl...@law.gwu.edu<mailto:icl...@law.gwu.edu>> wrote:


I'm a bit bewildered by Scalia's comment and the substantive reactions to it.  
Why in the world is a Justice telling us what he would have voted for as a 
Member of Congress, when that's not his role in the government?  Perhaps he 
would not have voted for the NLRA or the APA either; should that affect the way 
he decides labor law or ad law questions under those Acts?  There is a profound 
separation of powers problem screaming out from this comment.
Or am I just being a hopeless and quaint naïf, believing that judges interpret 
the statutes enacted by other branches (even when the statutes build on prior 
judge-made doctrines) without regard to the judge's view of their legislative 
merits?  Scalia (and all the rest) certainly have developed views of the 
compelling interest test, but that is quite irrelevant to whether they would 
vote to enact that test as legislation..  So what exactly is Scalia telling us 
to "bear in mind"?
On Sat, Oct 18, 2014 at 4:44 PM, James Oleske 
<jole...@lclark.edu<mailto:jole...@lclark.edu>> wrote:
I'm listening to the replay of the Holt v. Hobbs argument on CSPAN, and was 
struck a moment ago by this comment from Justice Scalia while discussing 
"compelling state interest" standard with the Assistant SG:

"We’re talking here about a compelling State interest. Bear in mind I would not 
have enacted this statute, but there it is. It says there has to be a 
compelling State interest. And you’re ­­ you’re asking, well, let’s balance 
things; let’s be reasonable. Compelling State interest is not a reasonableness 
test at all."

A quick Google search indicates that one of the only places this comment has 
gotten attention is over on Josh Blackmun's 
blog<http://joshblackman.com/blog/2014/10/08/justice-scalia-would-not-have-enacted-rluipa-what-about-rfra/>:

"Is that not significant? He wouldn’t have voted for RLUIPA. Recall that he did 
write Smith. If so, would he also not have voted for RFRA, as applied to the 
federal government (put aside the federalism problems)? That makes his [joining 
the Court's] opinion in Hobby Lobby so much more significant."

In answer to Josh's second question, I tend to think Justice Scalia would not 
have voted for RFRA. Recall, he rejected application of the compelling interest 
test in Smith in part because he viewed it as

"horrible to contemplate that federal judges will regularly balance against the 
importance of general laws the significance of religious practice"

- Jim
<http://ssrn.com/author=357864>

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--
Ira C. Lupu
F. Elwood & Eleanor Davis Professor of Law, Emeritus
George Washington University Law School
2000 H St., NW
Washington, DC 20052
(202)994-7053<tel:%28202%29994-7053>
Co-author (with Professor Robert Tuttle) of "Secular Government, Religious 
People" ( Wm. B. Eerdmans Pub. Co., 2014))
My SSRN papers are here:
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=181272#reg
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