Hi, I'm very new to Sage, thus it's likely I'm using it wrongly, but is this a bug?
Using: https://sagecell.sagemath.org/ I entered: F(x)=1/(1 + exp(-x)) FN(x,n) = F(x)**n assume(n, 'integer') assume(log(exp(n)+1) - n > 0) fn = diff(FN(x,n), x) mean(n) = integral(fn(x, n), (x, 0, oo)) mean(1) and I get: 1/((e + 1)*log(e + 1)^2 - 2*(e + 1)*log(e + 1) + e + 1) The answer I would expect is: 1/2 Also, it seems the expression I get as answer could be more compactly formatted as: 1/(e + 1)/(log(e + 1) - 1)^2 but that's secondary, the main point being whether the result is correct. Cheers, Mihai -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "sage-devel" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to [email protected]. To view this discussion on the web visit https://groups.google.com/d/msgid/sage-devel/5412469a-4972-41ef-990e-3f75ba4cfbf1%40googlegroups.com.
