It doesn't converge because in your first post you said
assume(f>0)
Its convergence is the same as
integral( cos(2 * pi * f * t), t , 0 , Infinity)
(think about area under a curve...). By the way, sage gives:
sage: t = var("t")
sage: x = var("x")
sage: assume(x>0)
sage: integral( cos(2 * pi * x * t), t , 0 , Infinity)
ind
What is "ind"?
On Mon, Sep 22, 2008 at 3:18 AM, Nasser Abbasi <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
>
>
> On Sep 21, 10:34 pm, Nasser Abbasi <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>> Let me rewrite what I wrote in last post again, since it did not
>> format well.
>>
>
> I think it is still not clear, so I wrote it in latex via SW, here it
> is again as screen image and PDF file
>
> http://12000.org/tmp/092108/eq.gif
>
> http://12000.org/tmp/092108/eq.pdf
>
> I hope this is more clear.
>
> Nasser
> >
>
--~--~---------~--~----~------------~-------~--~----~
To post to this group, send email to [email protected]
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
For more options, visit this group at
http://groups.google.com/group/sage-support
URLs: http://www.sagemath.org
-~----------~----~----~----~------~----~------~--~---