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Today's Topics:

   1. Re: Seeking your guidance, please (Vasu Srinivasan)
   2. Re: Seeking your guidance, decoding the lakAras (Jay Vaidya)
   3. Re: Seeking your guidance, decoding the lakAras (Vasu Srinivasan)
   4. Re: [l2] [grammar] vyAkaraNa vaibhavaM - part 10 -        vR^iddhi
      sandhi Poorvatraasuddham - (hn bhat)
   5. Fwd: [l2] [grammar] vyAkaraNa vaibhavaM - part 10 -       vR^iddhi
      sandhi Poorvatraasuddham - (hn bhat)
   6. A grammar doubt (Vis Tekumalla)
   7. Re: A grammar doubt (Raj Kotaru)
   8. Re: A grammar doubt (Vis Tekumalla)
   9. Re: A grammar doubt (Ambujam Raman)
  10. Re: A grammar doubt (Krishnanand Mankikar)
  11. Re: A grammar doubt (Desiraju Hanumanta Rao)
  12. Re: A grammar doubt (Desiraju Hanumanta Rao)
  13. Re: A grammar doubt (Vis Tekumalla)


----------------------------------------------------------------------

Message: 1
Date: Wed, 30 Dec 2009 09:35:04 -0600
From: Vasu Srinivasan <vasy...@gmail.com>
Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] Seeking your guidance, please
To: Sanskrit Mailing List <sanskrit@cs.utah.edu>
Message-ID:
        <42b4bd800912300735n655641ccs8135f913abd0c...@mail.gmail.com>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="windows-1252"

priya Krishnan mahodaya,

I will try to answer what little I know.

1. Though the definitions laT, la~N look arbitrary, the T ending and ~N
ending have their own purpose like where to place the iT Agama, whether to
have guna/vRddhi etc. All these definitions start with la, because Panini
simplifies where to apply tense/moods by simply giving a sutra called
"lasya".

2. Afaik, there is no equivalent of sma for future. Once Sri Vasuvaj-ji
jokingly mentioned that it would have been so nice to have that for future
tense too. . then we need not worry about any conjugations and just using
sma and some xxx. For loT, i think you can substitute with "prAya:" in the
sense of "may be". For eg sa: Agacchet | = sa: prAya: Agacchati |

3. "Why this asymmetry?" -- I don't think we can answer this convincingly.
Panini never tries to answer the qtn "why its like this". He describes how
the language was spoken - that is all.

4. How to find which gaNa - I think this comes only by studying. Some may be
easy to guess - like those looking like causatives will belong 10th gana.
Those that dont have a "a" vikarana (atti etc) may belong to 2nd gana. The
other way is to look at books like Dhatusagaratarani, dhatu rupa manjari
etc. There is quite a few literature on this.

5. How to find the pada -- Panini does not have a sutra for this, but he
does indicate the Atmanepada / parasmaipada forms using accents. Sadly this
knowledge is lost now (Or I hear that very few schools in India still teach
this - like the Arya samaj schools) - Not sure.



On Wed, Dec 30, 2009 at 12:07 AM, Sankara Krishnan <
krishnan_sank...@yahoo.co.in> wrote:

> I have the following nagging queries, for which I seek the guidance of
> savants like you, please
>
>
>
>    1. ?LakaaraH (the names of the tenses and moods of the verbs) like (laT,
>     la~N,  lR^iT .etc.): Is there any basis in their names? In other
>    words, why ?vartamaanakaalaH? (the name the present tense) is named as
>    ?laT?... etc.,
>    2. For the past tense form (la~N), you have a simple mechanism of
>    adding 'sma' to the present tense form (laT) of the verb. Is it
>    mentioned by Panini in his ?Ashtaadhyayi?
>    3. Do we a have similar approach for other tenses and moods? If not,
>    why this asymmetry?
>    4. For a given root of the verb (dhatu), how to find to which ?gaNa? it
>    belongs to? Also how to find whether it is ?parasmaipada? or ?atamanepada 
> or
>    ?upayapada?. Does Panini have a sutra for this?
>
>
>
> S. Krishnan
>
> ---------------
>
> ------------------------------
> The INTERNET now has a personality. YOURS! See your Yahoo! 
> Homepage<http://in.rd.yahoo.com/tagline_yyi_1/*http://in.yahoo.com/>
> .
>
> _______________________________________________
> To UNSUBSCRIBE or customize your subscription or topics of interest, visit
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> and follow instructions.
>
>


-- 
Regards,
Vasu Srinivasan
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Message: 2
Date: Thu, 31 Dec 2009 07:40:09 -0800 (PST)
From: Jay Vaidya <deejayvai...@yahoo.com>
Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] Seeking your guidance, decoding the lakAras
To: sanskrit@cs.utah.edu
Message-ID: <800555.63329...@web56601.mail.re3.yahoo.com>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="us-ascii"

Regarding Krishnan mahodaya's queries. Vasu mahodaya has answered them for the 
most part. Here is the same reply with my embellishments.

Q1. regarding the logic behind the names of the lakAras 
The "l" beginning of the names of the lakAras is for the convenience of 
referring to them all together as "lasya", "laH karmaNi cha bhAve 
chaakarmakebhyaH", etc.
The last consonant is either "T" or "N^". The ones that end in a "T" have "e" 
endings in the Atmanepada (Tita AtmanepadAnAm Ter e) - with further 
modifications of the "e"
e.g. laT : 
parasmaipada : pachAmi ; Atmanepada: pache
loT : 
parasmaipada : pachAni ; Atmanepada: pacha..e ->-> pachai (loT has a lot of 
exceptions because of "loTo laN^vat" resulting in "tAm" endings just like 
"laN^", etc.)
lR^iT :
parasmaipada : pakShyAmi ; Atmanepada: pakShye
liT :
parasmaipada : papAcha ; Atmanepada: peche
leT : (I don't know this well)

If the last consonant is "N^", the final "s" of the terminations is lost
laT - bhavAvaH -> laN^ - abhavAva
(There are other N^ related actions)

The intermediate vowel, if "R^i" means that there is a "sya" between the root 
and the termination
lR^iT : pakShyAmi : lR^iN^ : apakShyam 


Q2 : (regarding "sma") Same answer as given by vasu mahodaya. 
For immediate future or immediate past, the present is used (without the "sma").

Q3. (regarding asymmetry) Same answer as given by vasu mahodaya. 
Lighthearted/philosophical answer: The past and present are not symmetrical in 
reality, why expect them to be symmetrical in grammar? In any case there are 
three liT, luN^, laN^ past forms, and two  lR^iT, luT future forms. There is no 
symmetry to be expected. Only one laT present!

Q4,5: (regarding gaNa/pada)Same answer as given by vasu mahodaya. 

Thanks,
Dhananjay


      
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Message: 3
Date: Thu, 31 Dec 2009 11:31:59 -0600
From: Vasu Srinivasan <vasy...@gmail.com>
Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] Seeking your guidance, decoding the lakAras
To: Sanskrit Mailing List <sanskrit@cs.utah.edu>
Message-ID:
        <42b4bd800912310931v32ea6b34rd0ae258643ad0...@mail.gmail.com>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"

Dhananjaya mahodaya

Thanks for your detailed explanations on the lakara.

It really is an ingenious classification. Encoding all the 10 forms of verbs
with just la , Ta, ~n is simply brilliant.

Also in my mail, I mentioned sa Agacchet is loT. Its not correct. sa
Agacchet is vidhi ling form. Agacchatu is loT form. Thanks Vasuvaj-ji for
correcting it.

dhanyavAdah
vAsu


On Thu, Dec 31, 2009 at 9:40 AM, Jay Vaidya <deejayvai...@yahoo.com> wrote:

> Regarding Krishnan mahodaya's queries. Vasu mahodaya has answered them for
> the most part. Here is the same reply with my embellishments.
>
> Q1. regarding the logic behind the names of the lakAras
> The "l" beginning of the names of the lakAras is for the convenience of
> referring to them all together as "lasya", "laH karmaNi cha bhAve
> chaakarmakebhyaH", etc.
> The last consonant is either "T" or "N^". The ones that end in a "T" have
> "e" endings in the Atmanepada (Tita AtmanepadAnAm Ter e) - with further
> modifications of the "e"
> e.g. laT :
> parasmaipada : pachAmi ; Atmanepada: pache
> loT :
> parasmaipada : pachAni ; Atmanepada: pacha..e ->-> pachai (loT has a lot of
> exceptions because of "loTo laN^vat" resulting in "tAm" endings just like
> "laN^", etc.)
> lR^iT :
> parasmaipada : pakShyAmi ; Atmanepada: pakShye
> liT :
> parasmaipada : papAcha ; Atmanepada: peche
> leT : (I don't know this well)
>
> If the last consonant is "N^", the final "s" of the terminations is lost
> laT - bhavAvaH -> laN^ - abhavAva
> (There are other N^ related actions)
>
> The intermediate vowel, if "R^i" means that there is a "sya" between the
> root and the termination
> lR^iT : pakShyAmi : lR^iN^ : apakShyam
>
>
> Q2 : (regarding "sma") Same answer as given by vasu mahodaya.
> For immediate future or immediate past, the present is used (without the
> "sma").
>
> Q3. (regarding asymmetry) Same answer as given by vasu mahodaya.
> Lighthearted/philosophical answer: The past and present are not symmetrical
> in reality, why expect them to be symmetrical in grammar? In any case there
> are three liT, luN^, laN^ past forms, and two  lR^iT, luT future forms.
> There is no symmetry to be expected. Only one laT present!
>
> Q4,5: (regarding gaNa/pada) Same answer as given by vasu mahodaya.
>
> Thanks,
> Dhananjay
>
>
>
> _______________________________________________
> To UNSUBSCRIBE or customize your subscription or topics of interest, visit
> http://mailman.cs.utah.edu/mailman/options/sanskrit
> and follow instructions.
>
>
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Message: 4
Date: Fri, 1 Jan 2010 16:13:27 +0530
From: hn bhat <hnbha...@gmail.com>
Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] [l2] [grammar] vyAkaraNa vaibhavaM - part 10 -
        vR^iddhi sandhi Poorvatraasuddham -
To: Sanskrit Mailing List <sanskrit@cs.utah.edu>
Message-ID:
        <b1ef99311001010243s75cb1a38p85bcce714c7b5...@mail.gmail.com>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="utf-8"

>
> Its LSK explanation says,
> ????-??????????? ????? ???????? ??????? ????????????? ?????? ????? ???
> ???????? ?????????
> sapaada-saptaadhyayiiM prati tripaadii asiddhaa, tripaadyaamapi pUrvaM
> prati paraM shaastraM asiddham |
> The meaning of this rule is that, once a tripaadii sUtra applies in a
> situation, preceding sUtras won't apply.
> I couldn't understand how this meaning comes about from the above LSK
> explanation, because I don't know what 'asiddham' means.
> [Can experts come to my rescue here?]
>

Technically this sutra is a great riddle for the grammarians offering
hurdles in the application of the rules in individual cases (requiring the
place of the Sutra in the order of the Ashtadhyayi).

But the rule by itself is very simple in meaning "In view of the functions
(prescribed) up to this (sutra) (puurvatra) , (the function prescribed
hereafter) is undone (asiddham). Thus makes this Sutra which occurs 8.1.1
undo whatever has been said up to that Sutra, and in the view of the
functions prescribed thereafter, the functions preceding this do no exist
and are not taken as non-existent. (At present I do not have the text of
Ashtadhyayi to illustrate this effect. but the application of this rules
depends on the postion of the vidhi-sutra-s related in the order of
Ashtadhyayi. This has been explained by ????-??????????? ????? ????????
??????? making the functions prescribed in ???????? the three chapters from
this rule undone in view of the functions in the chapters preceding this
Sutra (including one paada of the eighth, in the seven chapters up to her).

Now, the same Sutra is repeated with each and every rules prescribing any
function in this and next 2 chapters (three Chapters) and makes the function
prescribed in those rules, non-existent (asiddha) in view of those functions
precribed in the rules prescribed in this ????????  among themselves. This
also is dependendent on the postition of the sutra in the ????????. This
gives the second interpretation for the sutra ????????????? ?????? ????? ???
???????? ????????? which makes each function prescribed in the rules in this
portion asiddha to the functions in the preceding Sutra-s.

Now coming to the rule lopaH ???? ??????????? lopaH shAkalsyasya (8.3.19) is
in the third pada of 8th chapter which comes after the 8.1.1 the
purvatrasiddham. which is non-existent in view of the rule for GuNasandhi
aad guNaH which should be either before the present LopaH sutra in this
Tripadii (i.e. after 8.1.1, but before 8.3.19) or previous portion (prior to
8.1.1 probably in 6th chapter before the Sutra for Vriddhi). If you check in
Ashtadhyayi, the position of the sutra, you will understand this.


This for the time being I can offter a loose explanation.

With regards

-- 
Dr. Hari Narayana Bhat B.R.
EFEO,
PONDICHERRY
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Message: 5
Date: Sat, 2 Jan 2010 11:18:58 +0530
From: hn bhat <hnbha...@gmail.com>
Subject: [Sanskrit] Fwd: [l2] [grammar] vyAkaraNa vaibhavaM - part 10
        -       vR^iddhi sandhi Poorvatraasuddham -
To: Sanskrit Mailing List <sanskrit@cs.utah.edu>
Message-ID:
        <b1ef99311001012148r6283834at754215e1b4dba...@mail.gmail.com>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="utf-8"

The consequences of Puurvatraasiddham.

I forgot to explain the consequences of the application of the above rule in
the present case to give the effect you had summarized.

The meaning of this rule is that, once a tripaadii sUtra applies in a
> situation, preceding sUtras won't apply.
> I couldn't understand how this meaning comes about from the above LSK
> explanation, because I don't know what 'asiddham' means.
> [Can experts come to my rescue here?]
>
> Once lopaH shaakalsyasya is applied to a situation, a preceding
> aShTaadhyaayii rule, i.e., aat-guNaH (in 6th chapter) won't apply.
> That's why hara iha stays as is. You can't apply guNa sandhi to it.
>
>
In the present case,

harayiha = har + a + y + i (???) + ha = har + a + iha = hara iha

the dropping of "y" is undone or non-existent due to the application of the
rule Puurvatraasiddham as the rue aad guNaH is 6.1.87 and the lopaH
shaakalyasya is in the tripadii section. In view of the rue GuNasandhi, the
lopa is non-existent means:

hara+y+iha is the available form, where as Guna sandhi requires "a" followed
by an ac. Here in its view, there is no "ac" required for its functioning,
but it is followed by "y" a consonant. Therefore, it doesn't function in
this case due to the application of this "asiddha" rule. This is the total
effect of the application of puurvatraasiddham rule. Not only this, the
Vriddhi also doesn't apply in this case of droping of "y" or "v" according
to the rule "lopaH shaakalyasya".

tasmai + eva >> tasmaay + eva tasmaayeva;
                       when 'y' is dropped, tasmaa + eva, now as it appears
its a case for Vriddhi. But due to the same "asiddha" rule, the drop of y is
non-existent and hence it considers it is followed by "y" and not by "e" as
we can see.

Vriddhireci is 6.1.88 the same effect as hara iha. Here it is a case for
Vriddhi. But both do not function due to "asiddha" rule as the function of
"lopaH shaakalyasya" is undone by "puurvatraasiddham".

The same will hold good when "v" is also dropped (lupta) of av, or aav at
the end of a "pada" acording to the same rule "lopaH shaakalyasya".

Hope this is clear the idea of "asiddha" which plays an important role in
the drivation of words in grammar.

With regards





---------- Forwarded message ----------
From: hn bhat <hnbha...@gmail.com>
Date: Fri, Jan 1, 2010 at 4:13 PM
Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] [l2] [grammar] vyAkaraNa vaibhavaM - part 10 -
vR^iddhi sandhi Poorvatraasuddham -
To: Sanskrit Mailing List <sanskrit@cs.utah.edu>


Its LSK explanation says,
> ????-??????????? ????? ???????? ??????? ????????????? ?????? ????? ???
> ???????? ?????????
> sapaada-saptaadhyayiiM prati tripaadii asiddhaa, tripaadyaamapi pUrvaM
> prati paraM shaastraM asiddham |
> The meaning of this rule is that, once a tripaadii sUtra applies in a
> situation, preceding sUtras won't apply.
> I couldn't understand how this meaning comes about from the above LSK
> explanation, because I don't know what 'asiddham' means.
> [Can experts come to my rescue here?]
>

Technically this sutra is a great riddle for the grammarians offering
hurdles in the application of the rules in individual cases (requiring the
place of the Sutra in the order of the Ashtadhyayi).

But the rule by itself is very simple in meaning "In view of the functions
(prescribed) up to this (sutra) (puurvatra) , (the function prescribed
hereafter) is undone (asiddham). Thus makes this Sutra which occurs 8.1.1
undo whatever has been said up to that Sutra, and in the view of the
functions prescribed thereafter, the functions preceding this do no exist
and are not taken as non-existent. (At present I do not have the text of
Ashtadhyayi to illustrate this effect. but the application of this rules
depends on the postion of the vidhi-sutra-s related in the order of
Ashtadhyayi. This has been explained by ????-??????????? ????? ????????
??????? making the functions prescribed in ???????? the three chapters from
this rule undone in view of the functions in the chapters preceding this
Sutra (including one paada of the eighth, in the seven chapters up to her).

Now, the same Sutra is repeated with each and every rules prescribing any
function in this and next 2 chapters (three Chapters) and makes the function
prescribed in those rules, non-existent (asiddha) in view of those functions
precribed in the rules prescribed in this ????????  among themselves. This
also is dependendent on the postition of the sutra in the ????????. This
gives the second interpretation for the sutra ????????????? ?????? ????? ???
???????? ????????? which makes each function prescribed in the rules in this
portion asiddha to the functions in the preceding Sutra-s.

Now coming to the rule lopaH ???? ??????????? lopaH shAkalsyasya (8.3.19) is
in the third pada of 8th chapter which comes after the 8.1.1 the
purvatrasiddham. which is non-existent in view of the rule for GuNasandhi
aad guNaH which should be either before the present LopaH sutra in this
Tripadii (i.e. after 8.1.1, but before 8.3.19) or previous portion (prior to
8.1.1 probably in 6th chapter before the Sutra for Vriddhi). If you check in
Ashtadhyayi, the position of the sutra, you will understand this.


This for the time being I can offter a loose explanation.

With regards

-- 
Dr. Hari Narayana Bhat B.R.
EFEO,
PONDICHERRY



-- 
Dr. Hari Narayana Bhat B.R.
EFEO,
PONDICHERRY
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Message: 6
Date: Wed, 6 Jan 2010 08:34:46 -0800 (PST)
From: Vis Tekumalla <vistekuma...@yahoo.com>
Subject: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt
To: Sanskrit <sanskrit@cs.utah.edu>
Message-ID: <426603.70558...@web113617.mail.gq1.yahoo.com>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"

Dear Group:
The word "nagaraajadhara" (one who held the great mountain - to refer to 
Krishna / Vishnu) commonly appears in poetry and songs.
Then, in?the 75th verse of saundaryalahari,?a mountain is described as that 
held by earth (dharaNidhara kanye......?O daughter of the mountain).?
Is there a problem in interpretation??



...Vis Tekumalla
vistekuma...@yahoo.com


      
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Message: 7
Date: Wed, 6 Jan 2010 16:40:56 +0000
From: Raj Kotaru <raj_kot...@hotmail.com>
Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt
To: <sanskrit@cs.utah.edu>
Message-ID: <col109-w5724d5a1424a080ac75206ff...@phx.gbl>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"


IMO:

dharanee = Earth

dharaneeDhara = Bearer of the Earth

dharaneeDharaKanyaa = Daughter of the Bearer of the Earth

 


 


Date: Wed, 6 Jan 2010 08:34:46 -0800
From: vistekuma...@yahoo.com
To: sanskrit@cs.utah.edu
Subject: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt






Dear Group:
The word "nagaraajadhara" (one who held the great mountain - to refer to 
Krishna / Vishnu) commonly appears in poetry and songs.
Then, in the 75th verse of saundaryalahari, a mountain is described as that 
held by earth (dharaNidhara kanye...... O daughter of the mountain). 
Is there a problem in interpretation? 



...Vis Tekumalla
vistekuma...@yahoo.com
                                          
_________________________________________________________________
Hotmail: Free, trusted and rich email service.
http://clk.atdmt.com/GBL/go/196390708/direct/01/
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Message: 8
Date: Wed, 6 Jan 2010 09:01:51 -0800 (PST)
From: Vis Tekumalla <vistekuma...@yahoo.com>
Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt
To: Sanskrit Mailing List <sanskrit@cs.utah.edu>
Message-ID: <666242.82135...@web113619.mail.gq1.yahoo.com>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"

That was my interpretation problem! Since Sankaraachaarya was 
addressing?Paarvati (who is referred to as the daughter of?the Mountain) in 
saundaryalahari, the phrase dharaNidhara in the verse should mean mountain, but 
not the one eho bears the earth. ???



...Vis Tekumalla
vistekuma...@yahoo.com

--- On Wed, 1/6/10, Raj Kotaru <raj_kot...@hotmail.com> wrote:


From: Raj Kotaru <raj_kot...@hotmail.com>
Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt
To: sanskrit@cs.utah.edu
Date: Wednesday, January 6, 2010, 11:40 AM




IMO:

dharanee = Earth
dharaneeDhara = Bearer?of the Earth
dharaneeDharaKanyaa = Daughter of the Bearer of the Earth
?

?


Date: Wed, 6 Jan 2010 08:34:46 -0800
From: vistekuma...@yahoo.com
To: sanskrit@cs.utah.edu
Subject: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt






Dear Group:
The word "nagaraajadhara" (one who held the great mountain - to refer to 
Krishna / Vishnu) commonly appears in poetry and songs.
Then, in?the 75th verse of saundaryalahari,?a mountain is described as that 
held by earth (dharaNidhara kanye......?O daughter of the mountain).?
Is there a problem in interpretation??



...Vis Tekumalla
vistekuma...@yahoo.com



Hotmail: Free, trusted and rich email service. Get it now. 
-----Inline Attachment Follows-----


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To UNSUBSCRIBE or customize your subscription or topics of interest, visit
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Message: 9
Date: Wed, 6 Jan 2010 12:33:08 -0500
From: "Ambujam Raman" <ambujamra...@rogers.com>
Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt
To: "Sanskrit Mailing List" <sanskrit@cs.utah.edu>
Message-ID: <98ec226b85ec4cf2a5345506198da...@ambujam>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"

The expression 'dhara' also means wearing/preserving/supporting/...
Himalayas envelops (wears) the earth as also literally supports the earth 
through its riches.
Also Apte gives the meaning for 'dharaNa' as The Himalaya (as king of 
mountains).
Hence there is no problem in Sankara's interpretation.

Dr. S. Raman
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Vis Tekumalla 
  To: Sanskrit Mailing List 
  Sent: Wednesday, January 06, 2010 12:01 PM
  Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt


        That was my interpretation problem! Since Sankaraachaarya was 
addressing Paarvati (who is referred to as the daughter of the Mountain) in 
saundaryalahari, the phrase dharaNidhara in the verse should mean mountain, but 
not the one eho bears the earth.    


        ...Vis Tekumalla
        vistekuma...@yahoo.com


        --- On Wed, 1/6/10, Raj Kotaru <raj_kot...@hotmail.com> wrote:


          From: Raj Kotaru <raj_kot...@hotmail.com>
          Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt
          To: sanskrit@cs.utah.edu
          Date: Wednesday, January 6, 2010, 11:40 AM


          IMO:

          dharanee = Earth
          dharaneeDhara = Bearer of the Earth
          dharaneeDharaKanyaa = Daughter of the Bearer of the Earth
           

           

----------------------------------------------------------------------
          Date: Wed, 6 Jan 2010 08:34:46 -0800
          From: vistekuma...@yahoo.com
          To: sanskrit@cs.utah.edu
          Subject: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt

                Dear Group:
                The word "nagaraajadhara" (one who held the great mountain - to 
refer to Krishna / Vishnu) commonly appears in poetry and songs.
                Then, in the 75th verse of saundaryalahari, a mountain is 
described as that held by earth (dharaNidhara kanye...... O daughter of the 
mountain). 
                Is there a problem in interpretation? 


                ...Vis Tekumalla
                vistekuma...@yahoo.com 



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Message: 10
Date: Thu, 7 Jan 2010 17:00:05 +0530
From: Krishnanand Mankikar <kdmanki...@gmail.com>
Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt
To: Sanskrit Mailing List <sanskrit@cs.utah.edu>
Message-ID:
        <2b2948ae1001070330l2bed4a63xf1fce74d7f752...@mail.gmail.com>
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Dear ...Vis Tekumalla,

"nagaraajadhara" refers to the episode in Krishna's life when he lifted the
Mount Govardhan to protect his clan from the incessant rain showered by
Indra to drown them in anger.(They all gathered under the mount which
supposedly was lifted on one finger by Lord Krishna -- pl read related story
for detail)

Whereas, dharaNIdhara is an epithet used for a mounain,(any huge
mountain) as it is the poetic/puranic convention that the mountains balance
the Earth. (Just as the Earth rests on the Shesha and so on)
kdm
2010/1/6 Vis Tekumalla <vistekuma...@yahoo.com>

>   Dear Group:
> The word "nagaraajadhara" (one who held the great mountain - to refer to
> Krishna / Vishnu) commonly appears in poetry and songs.
> Then, in the 75th verse of saundaryalahari, a mountain is described as that
> held by earth (dharaNidhara kanye...... O daughter of the mountain).
> Is there a problem in interpretation?
>
>  *...Vis Tekumalla*
> vistekuma...@yahoo.com
>
>
> _______________________________________________
> To UNSUBSCRIBE or customize your subscription or topics of interest, visit
> http://mailman.cs.utah.edu/mailman/options/sanskrit
> and follow instructions.
>
>
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Message: 11
Date: Thu, 7 Jan 2010 04:09:12 -0800 (PST)
From: Desiraju Hanumanta Rao <desirajuh...@yahoo.com>
Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt
To: Sanskrit Mailing List <sanskrit@cs.utah.edu>
Message-ID: <336051.1781...@web113614.mail.gq1.yahoo.com>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"


When dharaNI dhara kanye qualified by -- ?tava stanyaM 
?hRdayataH??parivahati.....how do u get vishnu or krishna et al.?
he?dharaNi dhara kanye,?tava stanyaM,?hRdayataH?parivahati,?payaH pArAvAraH iva 
etc woluld be the anvayam.?
kanyA dharaNi dharasya; whom the earth is bearing, his daughter

That was my interpretation problem! Since Sankaraachaarya was 
addressing?Paarvati (who is referred to as the daughter of?the Mountain) in 
saundaryalahari, the phrase dharaNidhara in the verse should mean mountain, but 
not the one eho bears the earth. ???







      
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Message: 12
Date: Thu, 7 Jan 2010 04:18:19 -0800 (PST)
From: Desiraju Hanumanta Rao <desirajuh...@yahoo.com>
Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt
To: Sanskrit Mailing List <sanskrit@cs.utah.edu>
Message-ID: <86017.76871...@web113602.mail.gq1.yahoo.com>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"

forgot to tell you vishvam
there is a web page contaiing Nataraja Guru's works which has saundarya lahari 
also. I deem his translations are perfect, of courses, loaded with some 
mathametical expressions, for he in his previous ashramam is a math professor; 
have a look at it?
http://advaitavedanta.co.uk/

verse 75
Your breast milk, I consider, o maiden born to the Earth- Supporting Lord,?As 
if it were word-wisdom's ocean of nectar, flooding *from out of Your 
heart?*R(out from)?Offered by one who is kind, which, on tasting,This dravidian 
child, amidst superior poets, is born a composer of charming verse.






      
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Message: 13
Date: Thu, 7 Jan 2010 05:46:27 -0800 (PST)
From: Vis Tekumalla <vistekuma...@yahoo.com>
Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt
To: desirajuh...@yahoo.com, Sanskrit Mailing List
        <sanskrit@cs.utah.edu>
Message-ID: <95289.52282...@web113618.mail.gq1.yahoo.com>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"

Oh no! The I was citing?Vishnu/Krishna examples?as meanings to?"nagaraajadhara" 
(someone that supports the?great mountain). When I paralleled that samaasa 
formulation with "dharanidhara" I was confused?since it appeared?to mean 
"(daughter of) someone who supports?the earth"?instead of "(daughter of) 
someone who is supported up by the earth."?
?
?
...Vis Tekumalla
vistekuma...@yahoo.com




________________________________
From: Desiraju Hanumanta Rao <desirajuh...@yahoo.com>
To: Sanskrit Mailing List <sanskrit@cs.utah.edu>
Sent: Thu, January 7, 2010 7:09:12 AM
Subject: Re: [Sanskrit] A grammar doubt



When dharaNI dhara kanye qualified by -- ?tava stanyaM 
?hRdayataH??parivahati.....how do u get vishnu or krishna et al.? 

he?dharaNi dhara kanye,?tava stanyaM,?hRdayataH
?parivahati,?payaH pArAvAraH iva etc woluld be the anvayam.?

kanyA dharaNi dharasya; whom the earth is bearing, his daughter

>
>
>That was my interpretation problem! Since Sankaraachaarya was 
>addressing?Paarvati (who is referred to as the daughter of?the Mountain) in 
>saundaryalahari, the phrase dharaNidhara in the verse should mean mountain, 
>but not the one eho bears the earth. ???
>
>
>
>  



      
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