John J Foerch scripsit: > The proposal now says that the gregorian and julian chronologies are > both proleptic. Do I interpret correctly that this means that in the > gregorian chronology, the day before 1582-10-15 is 1582-10-14, not > 1582-10-04?
Correct. Note that this is only the transition date for certain Catholic countries as well as for the Church itself. The remaining Catholic countries followed within a few years. But Protestant countries transitioned at various times in the 18th century (the English-speaking lands in 1752 -- try typing "cal 9 1752" if you are on a non-Windows system), and the Orthodox countries not until the 20th century. So to interpret historical dates, we must have the correct location and then create the appropriate compound chronology. http://www.tondering.dk/claus/cal/gregorian.php#country gives non-authoritative information about the transition dates in various locations. > In the julian chronology, is there a gregorian reform after 1582-10-04? No. > Do the gregorian and julian chronologies have a year zero? Also no. -- He made the Legislature meet at one-horse John Cowan tank-towns out in the alfalfa belt, so that co...@ccil.org hardly nobody could get there and most of http://www.ccil.org/~cowan the leaders would stay home and let him go --H.L. Mencken's to work and do things as he pleased. Declaration of Independence _______________________________________________ Scheme-reports mailing list Scheme-reports@scheme-reports.org http://lists.scheme-reports.org/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/scheme-reports
