> I would say that being scale-invariant and having a fixed range is one of
the main benefits of using R^2.

R^2 is upper-bounded by 1, but in held-out data settings it doesn't have a
hard lower bound. Being less than 0 means that the predictions was worse
than fitting a constant in least squares sense (i.e. predicting the mean).

As for scale invariance, this is an interesting aspect and may need to be
detailed a little more: R^2 is scale invariant in the sense that you can
scale y_true and y_pred by a multiplicative constant and R^2 yields the
same result.
In Pearson correlation, y_true and y_pred can be scaled with *different*
factors and it still yields the same results (you can also add a constant
to each of them).
An intermediate measure between the two is "explained variance", where
var(y_true - y_pred) is considered instead of 1/n ||y_true - y_pred||^2,
rendering the measure invariant to addition of a constant, but not to a
multiplicative factor.

As for the concordance score, I have no idea ;)


On Tue, Sep 8, 2015 at 5:15 PM, Andreas Mueller <t3k...@gmail.com> wrote:

> I'm also +1 on Pearson, and unsure about concordance ;)
>
>
>
> On 09/08/2015 10:43 AM, Mathieu Blondel wrote:
>
> Maybe I misunderstood Alex's comment but I thought he meant (Pearson)
> correlation.
> Alex, when you mentioned brain imaging, did you mean Pearson correlation
> or concordance correlation?
> I can't comment on concordance correlation as I was not familiar with it.
>
> On Tue, Sep 8, 2015 at 3:12 PM, Andreas Mueller <t3k...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
>>
>>
>> On 09/08/2015 06:42 AM, Mathieu Blondel wrote:
>>
>>> Pearson correlation between y_true and y_pred is also a standard
>>> evaluation metric in genomic selection. In a sense, it can be seen as a
>>> ranking measure since y_true and y_pred don't need to be equal: they only
>>> need to be collinear to achieve perfect correlation.
>>>
>>> +1 for adding pearson_correlation_score
>>>
>> I thought we were discussiong the concordance correlation coefficient?
>>
>
>
>
>
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