If b.cfc is passed to a.cfc on init() and I call a.function1a() with then calles b.fuction1b() can function 1b call I function 2a() [which in in a.cfc]
And if it can, is this a bad practice? -- AJ Mercer Web Log: http://webonix.net --~--~---------~--~----~------------~-------~--~----~ You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "cfaussie" group. To post to this group, send email to cfaussie@googlegroups.com To unsubscribe from this group, send email to cfaussie+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/cfaussie?hl=en -~----------~----~----~----~------~----~------~--~---
