Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-13 Thread Nathanael Nerode
I wrote:
  In contrast, pre-1986 (I think) US law specified that works published (==
  deliberately distributed to the public by their authors) without a 
copyright
  statement went into the public domain.

Michael Edwards wrote:
1976; but otherwise basically correct (IANAL)

Checked this one again.

The elimination of the notice requirement is present in the 1988 Berne 
Convention Implementation Act.

Under the 1976 Act, omission of notice could still result in the work rising 
into the public domain.  Unlike under the 1909 act, errors in name or date on 
the notice did *not* put the work into the public domain.  Neither did 
compilation situations where the compilation copyright notice was present, I 
believe.  Nor did unauthorized publication without notice.  However, 
deliberate total omission of copyright notices still did.  This was changed 
by the BCIA in 1988.  :-P


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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-13 Thread Nathanael Nerode
Michael Edwards wrote:
If one wants to remove ambiguity about the copyright status of small
contributions to a joint work, one could require either assignment of
copyright to the primary holder or formal placement into the public
domain,

One of the very unfortunate side effects of the Berne Convention 
Implementation Act of 1988 (and the reason I think it is gravely flawed) is 
that there is now no clear way, in the United States, for an author to 
deliberately place a work into the public domain.

Previously deliberate publication without copyright notice was sufficient.


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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-13 Thread Nathanael Nerode
I wrote:
  In contrast, pre-1986 (I think) US law specified that works published (==
  deliberately distributed to the public by their authors) without a 
copyright
  statement went into the public domain.

Michael Edwards wrote:
1976; but otherwise basically correct (IANAL)

Checked this one again.

The elimination of the notice requirement is present in the 1988 Berne 
Convention Implementation Act.

Under the 1976 Act, omission of notice could still result in the work rising 
into the public domain.  Unlike under the 1909 act, errors in name or date on 
the notice did *not* put the work into the public domain.  Neither did 
compilation situations where the compilation copyright notice was present, I 
believe.  Nor did unauthorized publication without notice.  However, 
deliberate total omission of copyright notices still did.  This was changed 
by the BCIA in 1988.  :-P



Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-13 Thread Nathanael Nerode
Michael Edwards wrote:
If one wants to remove ambiguity about the copyright status of small
contributions to a joint work, one could require either assignment of
copyright to the primary holder or formal placement into the public
domain,

One of the very unfortunate side effects of the Berne Convention 
Implementation Act of 1988 (and the reason I think it is gravely flawed) is 
that there is now no clear way, in the United States, for an author to 
deliberately place a work into the public domain.

Previously deliberate publication without copyright notice was sufficient.



Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-11 Thread Michael K. Edwards
On Thu, 6 Jan 2005 09:54:54 +0100, Batist Paklons [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On Wed, 5 Jan 2005 22:03:44 -0500, Nathanael Nerode
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
  Let me clarify.  :-)

Let me muddify.  :-)

  I have few complaints with the treatment of material for which the authors
  *claim* copyright.
 
  My complaint is about material distributed willy-nilly by its authors with
  *no* copyright statements and *no* licensing information.  Clearly the
  authors didn't intend all rights reserved, but that's what current law
  assumes.

Actually, if it's something like a patch to an existing work, offered
with the implicit understanding that it would be applied and become
part of the upstream, then at least two defenses are available if
copyright infringement is ever claimed: de minimis (especially with
regard to stuff that is almost purely functional, since it's only the
creative expression that's copyrightable) and implied license /
promissory estoppel.  The latter is evidently less available in civil
law countries, and probably couldn't be used in any jurisdiction to
claim that the maintainer has the authority to change license terms.

  In contrast, pre-1986 (I think) US law specified that works published (==
  deliberately distributed to the public by their authors) without a copyright
  statement went into the public domain.

1976; but otherwise basically correct (IANAL).  See
http://www.publaw.com/1976.html for some of the consequences; if an
author limited the scope of the license under which a work was first
published (say, in a magazine), and the publisher failed to tag her
work with a copyright notice in her name (separated from the
publisher's copyright notice for the magazine as a whole), then it
would fall immediately into the public domain.

  Note that this email message is subject to copyright, and can't legally be
  reprinted without permission (except for fair use, such as quotation 
  rights).
  Under pre-1986 US law, it would be public domain, because I didn't affix a
  copyright notice.

Most non-defamatory uses of your e-mail in the US would probably fall
under an implied license to redistribute and archive, since that's the
prevailing practice on public mailing lists.

  This change has, frankly, made a freaking mess.  This is why projects have 
  to
  have statements like By submitting a patch, you agree to license it to us
  under (license of choice).  Under the old law, submitting a patch of your
  own authorship to a public bug tracking system would be publishing it, and 
  if
  you did so without a copyright notice -- public domain.

Having such a statement helps establish what the prevailing practice
is in a given forum, in order to reach an implied license; but
copyright assignment and grant of right to sub-license can't be found
without a binding written agreement, and browse-wrap won't cut it. 
That's one of the reasons that I disapprove of the FSF's claims that
the GPL is not a contract; accepting submissions to a GPL project
without obtaining good evidence at least of acceptance of the GPL is
not a good idea.

If you buy that modifying and creating a patch are strong evidence
of acceptance of an offer of contract under the GPL, then it's not so
bad -- as long as the license terms are unalterable.  But the GPL
lacks any language that would make the maintainer an agent of the
copyright holder for the purpose of issuing a license under new terms,
and I am rather skeptical even of the version 2 or later formula. 
The FSF recommends copyright assignment or release into the public
domain to all GPL licensors, and insists on it for GNU projects,
thereby dodging the question.

I haven't thought the equivalent through for, say, BSD (not a
contract, I think; a court might even call it release into the public
domain, since the Planetary Motion court went out of its way to say
that GPL release isn't) or MPL.  But ultimately, a work with several
copyright holders is -- and probably should be -- hard to relicense.

 As I understand US law (though my knowledge of it is just marginal),
 the publishing without copyright notice wouldn't make it public
 domain, but just not-enforceable. Very often in litigation, one would
 register an already (long before) published work, to be able to
 enforce it in the upcoming litigation.

Registration is a formality separate from copyright notice, and now
functions in the US primarily as an administrative determiner of
provenance to which a court can kick back a question of fact when a
person being sued for copyright infringement has plausible evidence
that the copyright is no good.  Nathanael had it right under the 1909
law -- no notice, no copyright.

 I am not sure about this, but as a defense (the 'no, I am not
 infringing your copyright'), it probably doesn't have to be registred,
 but to be sure you should ask a US lawyer.

Registration establishes a rebuttable presumption of who wrote it
when, and whether someone else owned it from the beginning under 

Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-10 Thread Michael K. Edwards
Andrew Suffield [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 I grow tired of your endless habit of redefining every term in sight
 until it fits your whim, usually in defiance of your previous claims,
 reality, or just plain logic. This is a waste of my time. Go away.

If anyone else on debian-legal agrees with Andrew's assessment, please
let me know by private e-mail,  preferably with a citation to
something I actually wrote.  I wouldn't wish to put more people to the
trouble of editing their killfiles.  Thanks.

Cheers,
- Michael



Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-08 Thread Andrew Suffield
On Fri, Jan 07, 2005 at 09:26:16AM -0800, Michael K. Edwards wrote:
 On Fri, 7 Jan 2005 11:04:21 +, Andrew Suffield [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
  On Thu, Jan 06, 2005 at 06:20:29PM -0800, Michael K. Edwards wrote:
 ... and was enacted in an environment where previously no property
 right in ideas or expression was widely recognized
   
That's not accurate. You're dismissing the previous widely recognized
property rights because they don't fit your notion of fair. That
doesn't change the fact that they existed. They were just held by the
publishers.
  
   No, I'm relying on legal historians' assessments of the regime prior
   to the Statute of Anne,
  
  Blaming somebody else for doing it doesn't make it valid.
 
 No, the fact that there was no property right in works of authorship
 in England prior to 1710 makes it valid

Trivially false.

snip all arguments derived from this absurd claim

   That's not a legal foundation,
   that's a cartel created at despotic whim.
  
  There's no difference.
 
 It made plenty of difference in the Donaldson case -- the court
 declined to find a common-law copyright prior to the Statute of Anne,
 precisely because despotic whim doesn't create law fit to be treated
 as precedent.

It's one thing to say, in a common-law country, This previous law
does not constitute a binding precendent on this court at this point
in time. That's probably accurate at the time and completely
irrelevant.

Your argument was founded on There was never a previous law (because
I didn't like it), which is nonsense. There was one and it was
replaced.

 Ironically enough, trade secret is the only form of intellectual
 property that I cited which doesn't create an asset, in the sense that
 it doesn't create any tradable right like copyright or patent.
   
Trade secrets are routinely traded in the US, by means of contracts
and NDAs.
  
   No, the secrecy of trade secrets is maintained by means of these
   mechanisms.
  
  No difference there either.
 
 What part of trade secret law doesn't create a tradable right is
 confusing?

The part where it's false, and you try to relabel 'tradeable' as
something else just to weasel out of it.

snip derived arguments again

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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-08 Thread Michael K. Edwards
I doubt that anyone else thinks that there is a relevant and debatable
issue in play here.  Follow-ups to private mail, please.

Andrew Suffield wrote:
 Your argument was founded on There was never a previous law (because
 I didn't like it), which is nonsense. There was one and it was
 replaced.

No, it was founded on no previous law (in England) created a property
right in authorship.  Neither as a matter of statute nor as a matter
of common law.  You can call the Stationers' Company's charter and
by-laws law if you like, but they didn't create a property right in
authorship, nor even in publishership, any more than a cartel's
agreement to divide up market territories creates a property right in
ownership of those territories.  And for the Nth time, the regime
immediately previous to 1710 was 14 years of no legal restraints on
printing and publishing whatsoever.

  What part of trade secret law doesn't create a tradable right is
  confusing?
 
 The part where it's false, and you try to relabel 'tradeable' as
 something else just to weasel out of it.

Bah.  I repeat:  Like any other thing of value, unpublished knowledge
may form part of a contractual exchange; but a tradable right in
publicly disclosed knowledge, as created by copyright, patent, and
trademark law, is a creature of statute, and trade secret law doesn't
create such a thing.  All it does is to extend the scope of
enforcement of theft of unpublished knowledge from illegal means to
improper means, and extend the penalties on receipt of stolen goods
to include injunctive relief on their use in competing with the owner.

Judges in the UK and US created trade secret law out of principles of
equity, and legislatures codified it with few changes (at least in
most states of the US) -- very different from copyright and (modern)
patent, which are entirely creatures of statute.  Trademark falls in
between, in that there is a long history of the use of marks to
discourage and detect counterfeit goods, as an aid in enforcement of
criminal penalties for fraud; but the existence of trademark as a
tradable property right is again a creature of statute.

Cheers,
- Michael



Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-08 Thread Andrew Suffield
I grow tired of your endless habit of redefining every term in sight
until it fits your whim, usually in defiance of your previous claims,
reality, or just plain logic. This is a waste of my time. Go away.

*plonk*

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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-07 Thread Michael K. Edwards
On Fri, 7 Jan 2005 11:04:21 +, Andrew Suffield [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On Thu, Jan 06, 2005 at 06:20:29PM -0800, Michael K. Edwards wrote:
... and was enacted in an environment where previously no property
right in ideas or expression was widely recognized
  
   That's not accurate. You're dismissing the previous widely recognized
   property rights because they don't fit your notion of fair. That
   doesn't change the fact that they existed. They were just held by the
   publishers.
 
  No, I'm relying on legal historians' assessments of the regime prior
  to the Statute of Anne,
 
 Blaming somebody else for doing it doesn't make it valid.

No, the fact that there was no property right in works of authorship
in England prior to 1710 makes it valid, and the legal historians'
assessments establish that fact.  All English laws on publishing and
printing had lapsed fourteen years earlier, and no cases were brought
during that period in which anyone attempted to restrain a printer, on
grounds of lack of ownership, from printing what he pleased.

It was widely recognized, at the time of the 1774 Donaldson case as it
is now, that the Stationers' Company scheme (extant on and off from
1557 to 1696) had been a system of censorship and trade restraint, not
of property rights, and in particular had not created a property right
in authorship separate from the ownership of individual copies.  And
before you say it -- yes, there is a difference between the two.

  That's not a legal foundation,
  that's a cartel created at despotic whim.
 
 There's no difference.

It made plenty of difference in the Donaldson case -- the court
declined to find a common-law copyright prior to the Statute of Anne,
precisely because despotic whim doesn't create law fit to be treated
as precedent.  If you meant to say that all legal foundations are
cartels created at despotic whim, I'm not going to follow you down
that rathole.

Ironically enough, trade secret is the only form of intellectual
property that I cited which doesn't create an asset, in the sense that
it doesn't create any tradable right like copyright or patent.
  
   Trade secrets are routinely traded in the US, by means of contracts
   and NDAs.
 
  No, the secrecy of trade secrets is maintained by means of these
  mechanisms.
 
 No difference there either.

What part of trade secret law doesn't create a tradable right is
confusing?  Trade secret law entitles victims of breach of contract,
breach of confidence, and industrial espionage to injunctive relief
and, in some cases, monetary damages.  It's pure tort law, not
contract or property law.  This being law we're talking about, there's
a difference -- or did I wander into debian-if-I-were-king by mistake?

Cheers,
- Michael



Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-06 Thread Raul Miller
On Wed, Jan 05, 2005 at 10:03:44PM -0500, Nathanael Nerode wrote:
 Note that this email message is subject to copyright, and can't legally
 be reprinted without permission (except for fair use, such as quotation
 rights).  Under pre-1986 US law, it would be public domain, because I
 didn't affix a copyright notice.

I'm not sure that reprinted is a meaningful characterization of
the sorts of limits which are in effect.

For practical reasons, your message probably was never printed in
the first place.  Likewise, you can't really prevent people from
printing copies of the message.

If someone does something seriously unreasonable with the message,
then you'd have grounds for taking them to court.

In other words:

[1] People have some rights to use any copyrighted material that
they have received legally -- regardless of what rights have or
have not been granted to them.

[2] Reasonable expectations play a part in the interpretation of
copyright laws and licenses.

This issue of implicit copyright is significant, but it's not quite
as extreme as you've presented it.

-- 
Raul



Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-06 Thread Batist Paklons
On Wed, 5 Jan 2005 22:03:44 -0500, Nathanael Nerode
[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Let me clarify.  :-)
 
 I have few complaints with the treatment of material for which the authors
 *claim* copyright.
 
 My complaint is about material distributed willy-nilly by its authors with
 *no* copyright statements and *no* licensing information.  Clearly the
 authors didn't intend all rights reserved, but that's what current law
 assumes.
 
 In contrast, pre-1986 (I think) US law specified that works published (==
 deliberately distributed to the public by their authors) without a copyright
 statement went into the public domain.
 
 Note that this email message is subject to copyright, and can't legally be
 reprinted without permission (except for fair use, such as quotation rights).
 Under pre-1986 US law, it would be public domain, because I didn't affix a
 copyright notice.
 
 This change has, frankly, made a freaking mess.  This is why projects have to
 have statements like By submitting a patch, you agree to license it to us
 under (license of choice).  Under the old law, submitting a patch of your
 own authorship to a public bug tracking system would be publishing it, and if
 you did so without a copyright notice -- public domain.

As I understand US law (though my knowledge of it is just marginal),
the publishing without copyright notice wouldn't make it public
domain, but just not-enforceable. Very often in litigation, one would
register an already (long before) published work, to be able to
enforce it in the upcoming litigation.

I am not sure about this, but as a defense (the 'no, I am not
infringing your copyright'), it probably doesn't have to be registred,
but to be sure you should ask a US lawyer.

kind regards
batist



Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-06 Thread Francesco Poli
On Wed, 05 Jan 2005 18:43:02 -0800 Josh Triplett wrote:

 I'm not referring to those who sell proprietary licenses to a separate
 version of the software; I'm referring to those who use a copyleft
 license and sell exceptions for people who want to link their
 proprietary software against that copylefted software.

So you were thinking about libraries and the like, as I suspected...

In that case I can understand the rationale behing this business model.
In other cases, I find it hard...

-- 
  Today is the tomorrow you worried about yesterday.
..
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 Key fingerprint = C979 F34B 27CE 5CD8 DC12  31B5 78F4 279B DD6D FCF4


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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-06 Thread Francesco Poli
On Wed, 5 Jan 2005 22:20:37 -0500 Glenn Maynard wrote:

 The only case where what you say holds is where the licensee
 purchasing the proprietary license would have otherwise used the GPL
 license and released source.  Which case--encouraging companies to GPL
 source, or funding the further development of the work itself--is more
 beneficial is an open question,

Well, I was referring to a situation like this, more or less... 

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..
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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-06 Thread Matthew Palmer
On Thu, Jan 06, 2005 at 12:21:06PM +0100, Francesco Poli wrote:
 On Wed, 05 Jan 2005 18:43:02 -0800 Josh Triplett wrote:
 
  I'm not referring to those who sell proprietary licenses to a separate
  version of the software; I'm referring to those who use a copyleft
  license and sell exceptions for people who want to link their
  proprietary software against that copylefted software.
 
 So you were thinking about libraries and the like, as I suspected...
 
 In that case I can understand the rationale behing this business model.
 In other cases, I find it hard...

You're selling a licence to your app so that the recipient can modify and
resell, but they don't want to GPL their changes.

I probably wouldn't do it myself, but I can certainly envisage it as a
possibility.

- Matt


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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-06 Thread Michael K. Edwards
On Wed, 5 Jan 2005 23:48:40 +, Andrew Suffield [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On Wed, Jan 05, 2005 at 01:36:46PM -0800, Michael K. Edwards wrote:
  The classical forms of intellectual property -- copyright, patent,
  trademark, and trade secrets -- were developed to protect very
  different kinds of intangible assets.
 
 That's a myth, spread by a propaganda campaign run by large
 corporations over the past few decades. They want people to believe it
 so that they can claim moral authority for the continued protection of
 these assets.

With regard to developments in the last two decades, extending the
life and scope of existing copyrights in a way that benefits only a
few corporate owners of entertainment properties, I largely agree. 
But I think you present a somewhat one-sided view of the European
history of abstract property rights, and by implication of 19th and
most of 20th century US and world history in this area as well.

I'm no historian (and no lawyer), but I don't think the record's hard
to read.  At least in England and its colonies, the creation of
statutory property rights in commercial applications of knowledge has
fairly consistently been an improvement over the previous practice. 
There have been periods of backsliding and regulatory capture (as we
face in the US today), but legislators and judges have generally done
a better job of keeping an eye on the public interest than ministers
and guilds.

Granting limited protection to commercial enterprises involving
originality, inventiveness, quality assurance, and organizational
mastery is good public policy -- as long as the public interest is
served by the encouragement of creative efforts, the eventual release
of knowledge into the public domain, and reliable access to
high-quality goods at reasonable prices.  If the current state of law
about software consistently fails these public interest criteria (as I
believe it does), then perhaps we need new and better law, not
anarchy.

[snip]

 This process culminated in 1710, with the enactment of the Statute of
 Anne in the UK, marking the first form of copyright as we know it
 today. It permitted anybody to print anything, with certain
 restrictions designed to protect the revenue stream of the publishers
 (essentially the ones we have now, time limit 28 years).  ... [snip]

... and was enacted in an environment where previously no property
right in ideas or expression was widely recognized, and the only
recourse available to authors was to demand that their authorized
publisher seek enforcement of the limits of the royal grant on other
publishers.  See Donaldson v. Beckett 1774
(http://www.copyrighthistory.com/donaldson.html ), and in particular
Lord Camden's review of the legal history of printing prior to the
Statute of Anne.  While I find Lord Camden's assessment that Glory is
the reward of science, and those who deserve it, scorn all meaner
views rather overblown, he puts the case well that no property right
in authorship of a work once published could be found prior to 1710.

 Copyright was not designed to protect assets. It was designed to take
 them away. Rights of authors did not enter into it, nor was there any
 'trade' of rights between publishers and the people (another popular
 myth). The purpose of copyright in its modern form was to grant the
 people the right to copy works, which they did not previously have.

That just doesn't fit the history.  The Statute of Anne created a
legal foundation for an automatic exclusive right of publication,
something that was previously subject to the whim of royal ministers. 
This right was transferable (and generally transferred) from author to
publisher.  To protect other publishers from inadvertent violation, a
copyright registry was established.  To protect the public from
monopolistic price gouging, a judicial price review mechanism was
detailed.  To preserve public access to knowledge in the long run,
copyright was made to expire after a maximum of 28 years from first
publication, and to give authors a shot at an upside for works of
lasting interest (and a second chance with another publisher if the
first one didn't generate demand), copyright reverted to the author
after 14 years, forcing a renegotiation of terms.

The system was far from perfect, but it succeeded in creating a
statutory property right where previously there existed only executive
prerogative.  It didn't so much grant or deny anyone the right to copy
works; it recognized authors as the moral owners of their works, and
granted them the right to authorize a particular publisher to make
copies, within constraints motivated by public policy considerations.

[snip]

 Patents follow a fairly similar story; they began as monopolies on a
 certain trade, prohibiting anybody else from competing with a
 specified person, this time created by the state rather than the
 churce, as a method of raising funds. Widespread abuse led to them
 being locked down in 1624 by the Statute of 

Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-06 Thread Michael K. Edwards
Andrew Suffield wrote (in response to me):
 You imply that protecting intangible assets is an improvement, and
 that this was not done before, but neither of those are particularly
 accurate.

No, I imply that an asset is a property right, and that the previous
regimes didn't create property rights in abstract property -- at least
as a matter of law, reasonably reliably and impartially.  I consider
that an improvement over anarchy and despotism, but YMMV.

  ... and was enacted in an environment where previously no property
  right in ideas or expression was widely recognized
 
 That's not accurate. You're dismissing the previous widely recognized
 property rights because they don't fit your notion of fair. That
 doesn't change the fact that they existed. They were just held by the
 publishers.

No, I'm relying on legal historians' assessments of the regime prior
to the Statute of Anne, in which the Stationers' Company (a cartel
authorized by the Crown) exercised monopoly power and settled
internecine squabbles via the Star Chamber.  That's not my idea of
widely recognized property rights, and was rejected as precedent by
the Donaldson court.  I refer you again to Lord Camden's eloquent
summary in that case; he observes that the Statute of Anne was
immediately preceded by some fourteen years of complete anarchy (or
freedom if you like), and that publishers themselves brought with
them their wives and children to excite compassion, and induce
parliament to grant them a statutory security.

(A real lawyer and historian's view may be found in William F. Patry's
_Copyright_Law_and_Practice_; excerpt at
http://digital-law-online.info/patry/patry2.html .)

  That just doesn't fit the history.  The Statute of Anne created a
  legal foundation for an automatic exclusive right of publication,
  something that was previously subject to the whim of royal ministers.
 
 It did not do so in a vacuum. It replaced an existing system.

It replaced anarchy following the lapse of the Stationers' Company's
royal charter in 1694, which was preceded by royal prerogative and the
1681 bye-law of the Stationers' Company, preceded in turn by the
Licensing Act of 1662 (focused on censorship rather than property
rights).  As Lord Camden pointed out with regard to the records of the
Stationers' Company, Every man who printed a book no matter how he
obtained it, entered his name in their books, and became a member of
their company: then he was complete owner of the book.  Owner was the
term applied to every holder of copies; and the word 'author' does not
occur once in all their entries.  That's not a legal foundation,
that's a cartel created at despotic whim.

  Ironically enough, trade secret is the only form of intellectual
  property that I cited which doesn't create an asset, in the sense that
  it doesn't create any tradable right like copyright or patent.
 
 Trade secrets are routinely traded in the US, by means of contracts
 and NDAs.

No, the secrecy of trade secrets is maintained by means of these
mechanisms.  Like any other thing of value, unpublished knowledge may
form part of a contractual exchange; but a tradable right in publicly
disclosed knowledge, as created by copyright, patent, and trademark
law, is a creature of statute, and trade secret law doesn't create
such a thing.

Personally, I find it sobering to realize that my livelihood depends
on the continuation of these frail legal fictions, especially as I
dislike some of the uses to which they are put.  But you can always
spot a legal fiction that is sufficiently well established to be taken
for granted; people start calling it an inalienable right while it
erodes all around them.  (Does an indirect reference to Thomas
Jefferson's slaveholding invoke a corollary to Godwin's Law?)

Cheers,
- Michael



Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-05 Thread Josh Triplett
Nathanael Nerode wrote:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
So here's a hypothetical situation; say the current upstream maintainer
was to announce in a very public place, with Cc's to all known
contributor e-mail addresses, his intent to change the licence of the
code to GPL-2 (including documentation) and give a full list of
everything that would fall under it.  And then was to give a period (say
28 days) for objections to be raised.

If none were raised, could they then change the licence?
 
 No.
 
 :-P
 
 Yes, this is what SUCKS about current copyright law.  The presumption is All 
 rights reserved unless you have explicit permission.

Somehow, I doubt you'd say that about a GPL-licensed package with one
author who wants to grant a proprietary license to make money.  The only
difference between this situation and that one is that we like the
license change in one of them. :)

- Josh Triplett


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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-05 Thread Glenn Maynard
On Tue, Jan 04, 2005 at 10:25:49PM -0800, Josh Triplett wrote:
  Yes, this is what SUCKS about current copyright law.  The presumption is 
  All 
  rights reserved unless you have explicit permission.
 
 Somehow, I doubt you'd say that about a GPL-licensed package with one
 author who wants to grant a proprietary license to make money.  The only
 difference between this situation and that one is that we like the
 license change in one of them. :)

I assume you mean with many authors, one of which wants to ..., and
not with only one author, who wants to   I don't think most
people find offensive the notion of a sole copyright holder of a GPL-
licensed work granting proprietary licenses for a fee.

-- 
Glenn Maynard



Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-05 Thread Josh Triplett
Andrew Suffield wrote:
 Frankly, I think we were better off in the days when copyright had to
 be explicitly claimed.
 
 Anybody who doesn't know enough to claim it obviously doesn't know
 enough to license the damn thing properly either. That would cut out a
 lot of the crap we see.

I agree entirely.  I also agree with the various proposals to revoke the
copyright grant when the copyright holder ceases to care about it.

- Josh Triplett


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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-05 Thread Josh Triplett
Glenn Maynard wrote:
 On Tue, Jan 04, 2005 at 10:25:49PM -0800, Josh Triplett wrote:
Yes, this is what SUCKS about current copyright law.  The presumption is 
All 
rights reserved unless you have explicit permission.

Somehow, I doubt you'd say that about a GPL-licensed package with one
author who wants to grant a proprietary license to make money.  The only
difference between this situation and that one is that we like the
license change in one of them. :)
 
 I assume you mean with many authors, one of which wants to ..., and
 not with only one author, who wants to   I don't think most
 people find offensive the notion of a sole copyright holder of a GPL-
 licensed work granting proprietary licenses for a fee.

That's exactly what I meant; I just used a bad phrasing of the
statement.  What I meant was a GPL-licensed package (no statement about
the total number of authors), with one author who wants to ...; in
retrospect, the interpretation a GPL-licensed package with (only) one
author is far more natural given the way I stated it.  Thanks for the
correction.

I certainly don't find the other interpretation offensive; on the
contrary, it seems like a highly successful business model for Free
Software.

- Josh Triplett


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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-05 Thread Matthew Palmer
On Tue, Jan 04, 2005 at 11:34:47PM -0800, Josh Triplett wrote:
 Andrew Suffield wrote:
  Frankly, I think we were better off in the days when copyright had to
  be explicitly claimed.
  
  Anybody who doesn't know enough to claim it obviously doesn't know
  enough to license the damn thing properly either. That would cut out a
  lot of the crap we see.
 
 I agree entirely.  I also agree with the various proposals to revoke the
 copyright grant when the copyright holder ceases to care about it.

Apply that to patents as well, and you've got my vote.

If it's going to be Intellectual Property (hack, spit!) then it should be
treated like property -- if you don't maintain it, then squatters can take
it and you have no rights to it any more.

- Matt


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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-05 Thread Gervase Markham

Nathanael Nerode wrote:



If not, what procedure would be needed to make the software DFSG-free?
I'm going to guess clean-room rewrite of all of the documentation, and
of any code that could be affected?


Not *quite*.  But close.

(1) Every piece of code must be audited to determine the copyright holders.


While I'm here, I should point out that we are in the process of doing 
this for Mozilla to relicense under MPL/GPL/LGPL. It's taken 3 1/2 years 
so far. I'm happy to give advice to anyone who wants to do it for their 
own package.


Gerv



Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-05 Thread Michael K. Edwards
Josh Triplett [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Andrew Suffield wrote:
  Frankly, I think we were better off in the days when copyright had to
  be explicitly claimed.
 
  Anybody who doesn't know enough to claim it obviously doesn't know
  enough to license the damn thing properly either. That would cut out a
  lot of the crap we see.
 
 I agree entirely.  I also agree with the various proposals to revoke the
 copyright grant when the copyright holder ceases to care about it.

Presumably this would result in a formula for copyright maintenance
similar to that now in place for trademark maintenance.  Personally, I
would not like to see this happen.

In an era when grab bags of content can be published on the cheap,
automatic copyright helps protect the authors of works of modest size
and commercial value.  In an enforce it or lose it regime, one could
not easily offer individual poems, essays, or other minor artworks for
publication in periodicals and anthologies while retaining the
exclusive right to publish one's own collected works later.

The classical forms of intellectual property -- copyright, patent,
trademark, and trade secrets -- were developed to protect very
different kinds of intangible assets.  Arguably, none of them is
really the right answer for software, especially open source software.
 Copyright lasts too long and is too inflexible in the area of joint
authorship; patent gives too strong a monopoly and isn't applicable
to the bulk of software value creation unless the bar for originality
is set absurdly low; trademark protects the distribution channel but
not the creation; and trade secret protection only applies to things
that aren't shown to outsiders (hardly appropriate for free software).

In the US, the DMCA and UCITA amount to attempts to create a new form
of intellectual property specific to software and digital media.  I
happen to think they are very poor public policy in their details. 
But I'd prefer a well-thought-out digital rights legal formula over
distortions to the existing mechanisms.  The way it is now -- stealth
amendments bought by software and media giants, regulatory capture at
the USPTO, DRM arms races, and widespread contempt for the law -- is
no good.

In the best of all possible worlds, the same kind of work that went
into the DFSG (a most admirable set of quality criteria for free
software licenses) would be invested in a square deal standard for
commercial licenses.  (My idea of a square deal would disallow
anti-reverse-engineering clauses, acknowledge doctrine of first sale
rights to transfer or sell one's copy privately, and set a reasonable
standard for authorizing and tracking concurrent use.)  Perhaps such a
standard could give one-sided model legislation like UCITA a run for
its money.

Cheers,
- Michael



Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-05 Thread Andrew Suffield
On Wed, Jan 05, 2005 at 01:36:46PM -0800, Michael K. Edwards wrote:
 The classical forms of intellectual property -- copyright, patent,
 trademark, and trade secrets -- were developed to protect very
 different kinds of intangible assets.

That's a myth, spread by a propaganda campaign run by large
corporations over the past few decades. They want people to believe it
so that they can claim moral authority for the continued protection of
these assets.

Before printing was invented, effectively all books were controlled by
the church, because the only way to produce them in any quantity was
to have monks copy them out. The church therefore controlled the
content of all books, and they used this to great political effect
(dissenting opinions were not permitted). This was before the
separation of church and state.

When printing came along in the 15th century, the church was afraid
that this loss of control over the creation of books would lead to
spreading dissent against them. They pressed for, and got,
restrictions in law granting them control over what books were
printed. The purpose here was censorship, pure and simple.

Over time, the church's political influence was reduced. Governments
began to grant permission to other groups to control the printing of
books. These were the first publishers.

This process culminated in 1710, with the enactment of the Statute of
Anne in the UK, marking the first form of copyright as we know it
today. It permitted anybody to print anything, with certain
restrictions designed to protect the revenue stream of the publishers
(essentially the ones we have now, time limit 28 years). It also
prohibited the charging of prices conceived to be too high or
unreasonable. No prizes for guessing why that last part was in there
(British law at the time was mainly concerned with reacting to
observed problems, rather than trying to second guess possible future
problems).

Copyright was not designed to protect assets. It was designed to take
them away. Rights of authors did not enter into it, nor was there any
'trade' of rights between publishers and the people (another popular
myth). The purpose of copyright in its modern form was to grant the
people the right to copy works, which they did not previously have.

Everything since then has been the publishers trying to claw back some
part of what they lost. They've been fairly successful, and have
mostly regained their position of power.

[I've skipped a fair number of details, but those are the significant
highlights]

Patents follow a fairly similar story; they began as monopolies on a
certain trade, prohibiting anybody else from competing with a
specified person, this time created by the state rather than the
churce, as a method of raising funds. Widespread abuse led to them
being locked down in 1624 by the Statute of Monopolies (again in the
UK), which was the beginning of the modern patent system.

Again, it was to take assets away, not protect them.

Trademarks are essentially unrelated. They began as a way of marking
some property as yours (think of branding cattle), with prohibitions
on altering them introduced as basic anti-theft measures. They then
developed into the current system of branding sometime between the
10th and 15th centuries (I forget the details of when and how, but it
was started in the UK again - did we invent *all* of this crap?).

Trade secrets are a modern (20th century) perversion, but they're also
a US perversion. They aren't considered property in Commonwealth
countries. Breaking into your competitor's offices and stealing their
files is theft, but there's no law against obtaining them via means
that would otherwise be legal (except in the US and a few countries
who duplicated their insanity). They're probably the only one designed
to protect assets.

 In the US, the DMCA and UCITA amount to attempts to create a new form
 of intellectual property specific to software and digital media.  I
 happen to think they are very poor public policy in their details. 
 But I'd prefer a well-thought-out digital rights legal formula over
 distortions to the existing mechanisms.  The way it is now -- stealth
 amendments bought by software and media giants, regulatory capture at
 the USPTO, DRM arms races, and widespread contempt for the law -- is
 no good.

That's no surprise, since the system was never designed to cope with
this sort of thing. Given its position in history, the intent was
probably to continue to introduce new laws to stop this kind of crap
as it came up; that was the prevailing approach to legislation at the
time. But the political landscape shifted to favour the large
corporations, so that never happened.

-- 
  .''`.  ** Debian GNU/Linux ** | Andrew Suffield
 : :' :  http://www.debian.org/ |
 `. `'  |
   `- --  |


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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-05 Thread Francesco Poli
On Wed, 5 Jan 2005 01:38:29 -0500 Glenn Maynard wrote:

 I don't think most
 people find offensive the notion of a sole copyright holder of a GPL-
 licensed work granting proprietary licenses for a fee.

It's perfectly legal, AFAIK.
I don't particularly like this business model, but there exist many many
worse ones...

The reasons why I don't like this business model are:

* in many cases it generates the interest to persuade potential
proprietary-license buyers that the proprietary variant is somewhat
better or the only alternative (possibly contributing to spread FUD
about the GNU GPL)

* I fail to see the usefulness (from a downstream recipient's point of
view) of a proprietary variant, when a technically identical piece of
software is available under the GNU GPL (the only exceptions are maybe
libraries and the like...)

* some of the downstream recipients do not get freedoms, and this does
not sound good

-- 
  Today is the tomorrow you worried about yesterday.
..
  Francesco Poli GnuPG Key ID = DD6DFCF4
 Key fingerprint = C979 F34B 27CE 5CD8 DC12  31B5 78F4 279B DD6D FCF4


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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-05 Thread Josh Triplett
Michael K. Edwards wrote:
 Josh Triplett [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
Andrew Suffield wrote:

Frankly, I think we were better off in the days when copyright had to
be explicitly claimed.

Anybody who doesn't know enough to claim it obviously doesn't know
enough to license the damn thing properly either. That would cut out a
lot of the crap we see.

I agree entirely.  I also agree with the various proposals to revoke the
copyright grant when the copyright holder ceases to care about it.
 
 Presumably this would result in a formula for copyright maintenance
 similar to that now in place for trademark maintenance.  Personally, I
 would not like to see this happen.

Neither would I.  I'm not suggesting that you must enforce your
copyrights in order to keep them; rather, I'm referring to various
proposed fixes such as the Public Domain Enhancement Act, which would
require a token fee (such as $1) after a certain amount of time, and
expire the copyright if the fee is not paid.  This would essentially
require you to periodically renew your copyright registration.

- Josh Triplett


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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-05 Thread Josh Triplett
Francesco Poli wrote:
 On Wed, 5 Jan 2005 01:38:29 -0500 Glenn Maynard wrote:
I don't think most
people find offensive the notion of a sole copyright holder of a GPL-
licensed work granting proprietary licenses for a fee.
 
 It's perfectly legal, AFAIK.
 I don't particularly like this business model, but there exist many many
 worse ones...
 
 The reasons why I don't like this business model are:
 
 * in many cases it generates the interest to persuade potential
 proprietary-license buyers that the proprietary variant is somewhat
 better or the only alternative (possibly contributing to spread FUD
 about the GNU GPL)

I do agree that such FUD is undesirable and unethical.

 * I fail to see the usefulness (from a downstream recipient's point of
 view) of a proprietary variant, when a technically identical piece of
 software is available under the GNU GPL (the only exceptions are maybe
 libraries and the like...)

I'm not referring to those who sell proprietary licenses to a separate
version of the software; I'm referring to those who use a copyleft
license and sell exceptions for people who want to link their
proprietary software against that copylefted software.

 * some of the downstream recipients do not get freedoms, and this does
 not sound good

In the scenario I'm referring to, both versions are identical, so anyone
who wants Free Software will take the GPLed version, and the only people
who purchase proprietary licenses will be those who *want* proprietary
licenses that work with their proprietary software.

- Josh Triplett


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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-05 Thread Nathanael Nerode
Nathanael Nerode wrote:
 Yes, this is what SUCKS about current copyright law.  The presumption is 
All  rights reserved unless you have explicit permission.
Josh Triplett wrote:
Somehow, I doubt you'd say that about a GPL-licensed package with one
author who wants to grant a proprietary license to make money.  The only
difference between this situation and that one is that we like the
license change in one of them. :)

Let me clarify.  :-)

I have few complaints with the treatment of material for which the authors 
*claim* copyright.

My complaint is about material distributed willy-nilly by its authors with 
*no* copyright statements and *no* licensing information.  Clearly the 
authors didn't intend all rights reserved, but that's what current law 
assumes.

In contrast, pre-1986 (I think) US law specified that works published (== 
deliberately distributed to the public by their authors) without a copyright 
statement went into the public domain.

Note that this email message is subject to copyright, and can't legally be 
reprinted without permission (except for fair use, such as quotation rights).  
Under pre-1986 US law, it would be public domain, because I didn't affix a 
copyright notice.

This change has, frankly, made a freaking mess.  This is why projects have to 
have statements like By submitting a patch, you agree to license it to us 
under (license of choice).  Under the old law, submitting a patch of your 
own authorship to a public bug tracking system would be publishing it, and if 
you did so without a copyright notice -- public domain.

ObLicense: Any person may copy and/or distribute this message, with or without 
modification, in perpetuity, without royalty and without additional license.



Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-05 Thread Glenn Maynard
On Thu, Jan 06, 2005 at 12:57:49AM +0100, Francesco Poli wrote:
  I don't think most
  people find offensive the notion of a sole copyright holder of a GPL-
  licensed work granting proprietary licenses for a fee.
 
 It's perfectly legal, AFAIK.

Of course.

 * in many cases it generates the interest to persuade potential
 proprietary-license buyers that the proprietary variant is somewhat
 better or the only alternative (possibly contributing to spread FUD
 about the GNU GPL)

This is a problem with individuals being dishonest, not a flaw of
this particular business model.

 * I fail to see the usefulness (from a downstream recipient's point of
 view) of a proprietary variant, when a technically identical piece of
 software is available under the GNU GPL (the only exceptions are maybe
 libraries and the like...)

This model is most common and most useful with libraries.

 * some of the downstream recipients do not get freedoms, and this does
 not sound good

I disagree.  People still have exactly as much freedom to make use of
the GPL work after an additional license is granted to some third party
as they did before.  For example, I don't have less freedom to use MAD
if Nullsoft buys a proprietary license to make use of it in Winamp[1].  (On
the other hand, if it's funding the person doing the development, it may
help ensure its continued development, which actually is in my interest.)

The only case where what you say holds is where the licensee purchasing
the proprietary license would have otherwise used the GPL license and
released source.  Which case--encouraging companies to GPL source, or
funding the further development of the work itself--is more beneficial
is an open question, up to each licensor to decide for himself, of course.
(In this case, I'd say that the future maintenance of MAD benefits me
and my projects far more than would Winamp being released under the GPL,
but it can go either way.)


[1] which, as far as I know, they have not done; this is a purely hypothetical
example

-- 
Glenn Maynard



Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-04 Thread Scott James Remnant
I'm vaguely aware of a piece of software which contains both GFDL
licensed material, and possibly code which was dropped in without
actually checking the licence for compatibility with the GPL.

A gargantuan number of people over the years have contributed code to
it, and many have claimed copyright for their contributions.  No policy
of copyright-assignment has been used.


So here's a hypothetical situation; say the current upstream maintainer
was to announce in a very public place, with Cc's to all known
contributor e-mail addresses, his intent to change the licence of the
code to GPL-2 (including documentation) and give a full list of
everything that would fall under it.  And then was to give a period (say
28 days) for objections to be raised.

If none were raised, could they then change the licence?


If not, what procedure would be needed to make the software DFSG-free?
I'm going to guess clean-room rewrite of all of the documentation, and
of any code that could be affected?

Thanks in advance,

Scott
-- 
Have you ever, ever felt like this?
Had strange things happen?  Are you going round the twist?


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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-04 Thread Andrew Suffield
On Tue, Jan 04, 2005 at 10:37:30PM +, Scott James Remnant wrote:
 So here's a hypothetical situation; say the current upstream maintainer
 was to announce in a very public place, with Cc's to all known
 contributor e-mail addresses, his intent to change the licence of the
 code to GPL-2 (including documentation) and give a full list of
 everything that would fall under it.  And then was to give a period (say
 28 days) for objections to be raised.
 
 If none were raised, could they then change the licence?

Not with any kind of legitimacy. The copyright holders who have not
explicitly agreed to the new license would be fully justified in
ignoring it, and treating all licensees as if they were still working
to the old one. No private individual can make a declaration of the
form Respond now or forfeit your copyright.

 If not, what procedure would be needed to make the software DFSG-free?
 I'm going to guess clean-room rewrite of all of the documentation, and
 of any code that could be affected?

That would work. Alternatively, just cut anything whose author can't
be traced or contacted - there's no need to throw away stuff written
by somebody who agrees to the new license. That does mean line-by-line
verification though, so it might not be practical (depending on
whether contributions are concentrated in some areas or uniformly
distributed).

-- 
  .''`.  ** Debian GNU/Linux ** | Andrew Suffield
 : :' :  http://www.debian.org/ |
 `. `'  |
   `- --  |


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Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-04 Thread Glenn Maynard
On Tue, Jan 04, 2005 at 10:37:30PM +, Scott James Remnant wrote:
 I'm vaguely aware of a piece of software which contains both GFDL
 licensed material, and possibly code which was dropped in without
 actually checking the licence for compatibility with the GPL.

I'm not quite sure what you mean.  Is there one work or two here?  The
GFDL is GPL-incompatible, so is the GFDL licensed material part of
code which was dropped in?

 So here's a hypothetical situation; say the current upstream maintainer
 was to announce in a very public place, with Cc's to all known
 contributor e-mail addresses, his intent to change the licence of the
 code to GPL-2 (including documentation) and give a full list of
 everything that would fall under it.  And then was to give a period (say
 28 days) for objections to be raised.
 
 If none were raised, could they then change the licence?

No.  You can't announce unless you say otherwise, your copyrighted work is
now under this license.

I don't know if there are other means to relicense.  There's been vague
talk of things like joint works, and also talk of what rights an editor
can do.  These have never been particularly well-explored, though: a means
to grant permissions without the original author's consent isn't something
most people here want to figure out a way to do, I assume.  (If it's possible,
it's probably not a good idea to try without asking a lawyer.)

-- 
Glenn Maynard



Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-04 Thread Nathanael Nerode
[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 I'm vaguely aware of a piece of software which contains both GFDL
 licensed material, and possibly code which was dropped in without
 actually checking the licence for compatibility with the GPL.
 
 A gargantuan number of people over the years have contributed code to
 it, and many have claimed copyright for their contributions. No policy 
 of copyright-assignment has been used.
 
 
 So here's a hypothetical situation; say the current upstream maintainer
 was to announce in a very public place, with Cc's to all known
 contributor e-mail addresses, his intent to change the licence of the
 code to GPL-2 (including documentation) and give a full list of
 everything that would fall under it.  And then was to give a period (say
 28 days) for objections to be raised.
 
 If none were raised, could they then change the licence?
No.

:-P

Yes, this is what SUCKS about current copyright law.  The presumption is All 
rights reserved unless you have explicit permission.

If not, what procedure would be needed to make the software DFSG-free?
I'm going to guess clean-room rewrite of all of the documentation, and
of any code that could be affected?
Not *quite*.  But close.

(1) Every piece of code must be audited to determine the copyright holders.
(I *hope* they kept track of that, but many don't.)  The author of any major 
portion or major collection of changes -- or his/her employer if it was work 
for hire and the author was in a country with that doctrine -- is a copyright 
holder for that portion.  (Unless that person has explicitly released it to 
the public domain, or it was published without copyright notices in the US 
prior to, I believe, 1986 -- in those cases it's in the public domain.)
(2) If the author of a piece cannot be identified, and the piece is not 
clearly in the public domain, it must be clean-room rewritten.
(3) If the author can be identified, and agrees explicitly to relicense the 
code (or the license for the code is already OK), it can be kept.
(4) If the author can be identified, but does not agree explicitly to 
relicense the code (whether this is because he/she can't be reached or 
because he/she refuses or because he/she is incomprehensible), it must be 
clean-room rewritten.

So, (3) is the exception to your rule; the work of anyone who can actually be 
tracked down, and who agrees to relicense, can be relicensed.  Perhaps 
surprisingly, many people can be tracked down, and *do* agree to relicense.  
For large chunks, this may be easier than clean-room rewrites.  For small 
chunks, probably it's harder.

I know of several packages which fall into this rather nasty category, and I 
haven't had the heart to work on most of them.  I wish you luck.



Re: Hypothetical situation to chew on

2005-01-04 Thread Glenn Maynard
On Tue, Jan 04, 2005 at 11:01:41PM -0500, Nathanael Nerode wrote:
 Yes, this is what SUCKS about current copyright law.  The presumption is All 
 rights reserved unless you have explicit permission.

The fact that it never expires is what sucks about it.  The default
copyright permissions aren't so bad, by comparison, as long as you're
aware of it.  :)

That's one of the major contributions of debian-legal, in my opinion:
making people aware of how copyright affects their projects (giving
it at least the force of sorry, we just can't distribute this safely),
that it can't simply be ignored, and that in many cases, it can be dealt
with reasonably by ordinary humans.  (In some cases--possibly like this
one, where there may be accumulated licensing errors over years--it may
be too late, though.)

-- 
Glenn Maynard