Re: [Freesurfer] A question regarding DODS or DOSS

2014-02-02 Thread KimMJ



Dear Doug and Donald
Thank you for your kind directions.
1) When I perform DOSS using the contrast (1 -1 0), the significant areas of 
cortical thinning in patients relative to controls (i.e., temporo-occipital 
cortex) were similar but more widespread in comparison with those in DODS 
analysis at the same threshold of CWP  0.05.2) According to your suggestion, 
I've tried DODS with and without demeaning the covariate (age in my study) and 
observed virtually same results (to my eyes) between the 2 approaches.
I'd appreciated very much your patience with my basic questions.

Min










Date: Thu, 30 Jan 2014 13:16:42 -0500
From: mclaren.don...@gmail.com
To: freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu
Subject: Re: [Freesurfer] A question regarding DODS or DOSS


You might also want to read about mean centering and same or different slopes 
here:
http://mumford.fmripower.org/mean_centering/

Best Regards, Donald McLaren
=
D.G. McLaren, Ph.D.
Research Fellow, Department of Neurology, Massachusetts General Hospital and
Harvard Medical School

Postdoctoral Research Fellow, GRECC, Bedford VA
Website: http://www.martinos.org/~mclaren
Office: (773) 406-2464
=
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On Thu, Jan 30, 2014 at 12:03 PM, Douglas N Greve gr...@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu 
wrote:



Technically, you are on safe ground using DODS in that I don't think a

reviewer would object. However, I would be a little worried as to

whether the group difference is real. Does DOSS start to look like DODS

if you lower the threshold? Try running DODS with and without demeaning

the covariates to see whether it changes much.



doug



On 01/28/2014 07:52 PM, KimMJ wrote:





 

 Dear Doug



 Thank you for the prompt reply.

 I want to make sure: If there is no group*age interaction, is it safe

 to report the result of group differences using DODS (1 -1 0 0 )?

 Or is it more appropriate (or mandatory) to further use DOSS to look

 for group differences (1 -1 0)?

 The reason why I ask you is that the results of group differences

 using DODS is satisfactorily significant to support my hypothesis.



 Sorry for bothering you again with my silly question.

 Thank you.



 Min J.













 Date: Tue, 28 Jan 2014 12:10:42 -0500

 From: gr...@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu

 To: freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu

 Subject: Re: [Freesurfer] A question regarding DODS or DOSS





 On 1/28/14 7:03 AM, KimMJ wrote:



 Dear Doug and experts



 My question is about the choice of DODS or DOSS.

 I want to compare cortical thickness between 2 groups (disease

 group and control group), while controlling for the effect of age

 (nuisance covariate).

 I've already read through the mailing list about the issue of DODS

 and DOSS designs.



 If I understand correctly, I have to first use DODS (QDEC) in

 order to find areas of significant group*age interaction by using

 the contrast (0 0 1 -1).

 Given there is no area of interaction that survived multiple

 comparisons correction, I can go with DOSS (1 -1 0) using

 mri_glmfit (command line) to test between-group differences in

 cortical thickness, controlling for the effect of age. Am I right?



 Yes





 My another question is that 'MUST' I rerun DOSS model after

 confirming no group*age interaction in DODS ? Or can I directly

 use the results of DODS to look for between-group differences

 controlling for age (1 -1 0 0), since there is no group*age

 interaction ?

 Is there much difference in results between the above-mentioned

 two approaches?



 Technically, yes, though the results will be different. How different,

 no one knows. The reason I like going to DODS is that there are no

 issues with the slopes being slightly different. It does not take much

 time to re-run it.



 I've found a reply by Doug from the mailing list: If there is no

 interaction, then either DODS or DOSS is appropriate. DOSS will be

 more powerful and a little more interpretable

 (http://www.mail-archive.com/freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu/msg33418.html

 
 http://www.mail-archive.com/freesurfer

Re: [Freesurfer] A question regarding DODS or DOSS

2014-01-30 Thread Douglas N Greve

Technically, you are on safe ground using DODS in that I don't think a 
reviewer would object. However, I would be a little worried as to 
whether the group difference is real. Does DOSS start to look like DODS 
if you lower the threshold? Try running DODS with and without demeaning 
the covariates to see whether it changes much.

doug

On 01/28/2014 07:52 PM, KimMJ wrote:


 
 Dear Doug

 Thank you for the prompt reply.
 I want to make sure: If there is no group*age interaction, is it safe 
 to report the result of group differences using DODS (1 -1 0 0 )?
 Or is it more appropriate (or mandatory) to further use DOSS to look 
 for group differences (1 -1 0)?
 The reason why I ask you is that the results of group differences 
 using DODS is satisfactorily significant to support my hypothesis.

 Sorry for bothering you again with my silly question.
 Thank you.

 Min J.






 Date: Tue, 28 Jan 2014 12:10:42 -0500
 From: gr...@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu
 To: freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu
 Subject: Re: [Freesurfer] A question regarding DODS or DOSS


 On 1/28/14 7:03 AM, KimMJ wrote:

 Dear Doug and experts

 My question is about the choice of DODS or DOSS.
 I want to compare cortical thickness between 2 groups (disease
 group and control group), while controlling for the effect of age
 (nuisance covariate).
 I've already read through the mailing list about the issue of DODS
 and DOSS designs.

 If I understand correctly, I have to first use DODS (QDEC) in
 order to find areas of significant group*age interaction by using
 the contrast (0 0 1 -1).
 Given there is no area of interaction that survived multiple
 comparisons correction, I can go with DOSS (1 -1 0) using
 mri_glmfit (command line) to test between-group differences in
 cortical thickness, controlling for the effect of age. Am I right?

 Yes


 My another question is that 'MUST' I rerun DOSS model after
 confirming no group*age interaction in DODS ? Or can I directly
 use the results of DODS to look for between-group differences
 controlling for age (1 -1 0 0), since there is no group*age
 interaction ?
 Is there much difference in results between the above-mentioned
 two approaches?

 Technically, yes, though the results will be different. How different, 
 no one knows. The reason I like going to DODS is that there are no 
 issues with the slopes being slightly different. It does not take much 
 time to re-run it.

 I've found a reply by Doug from the mailing list: If there is no
 interaction, then either DODS or DOSS is appropriate. DOSS will be
 more powerful and a little more interpretable
 (http://www.mail-archive.com/freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu/msg33418.html
 
 http://www.mail-archive.com/freesurfer%40nmr.mgh.harvard.edu/msg33418.html).
 From this context, what does the 'powerful' mean? Does DOSS yield
 higher statistical values than DODS?

 It means that you will have a higher degrees of freedom. All other 
 things being equal, it means more significant p values.
 doug


 Apology for the beginner's questions.
 Thank you in advance for your help.

 MJ


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Re: [Freesurfer] A question regarding DODS or DOSS

2014-01-30 Thread MCLAREN, Donald
You might also want to read about mean centering and same or different
slopes here:
*http://mumford http://mumford*.fmripower.org/*mean*_*centering*/

Best Regards, Donald McLaren
=
D.G. McLaren, Ph.D.
Research Fellow, Department of Neurology, Massachusetts General Hospital and
Harvard Medical School
Postdoctoral Research Fellow, GRECC, Bedford VA
Website: http://www.martinos.org/~mclaren
Office: (773) 406-2464
=
This e-mail contains CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION which may contain PROTECTED
HEALTHCARE INFORMATION and may also be LEGALLY PRIVILEGED and which is
intended only for the use of the individual or entity named above. If the
reader of the e-mail is not the intended recipient or the employee or agent
responsible for delivering it to the intended recipient, you are hereby
notified that you are in possession of confidential and privileged
information. Any unauthorized use, disclosure, copying or the taking of any
action in reliance on the contents of this information is strictly
prohibited and may be unlawful. If you have received this e-mail
unintentionally, please immediately notify the sender via telephone at (773)
406-2464 or email.


On Thu, Jan 30, 2014 at 12:03 PM, Douglas N Greve gr...@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu
 wrote:


 Technically, you are on safe ground using DODS in that I don't think a
 reviewer would object. However, I would be a little worried as to
 whether the group difference is real. Does DOSS start to look like DODS
 if you lower the threshold? Try running DODS with and without demeaning
 the covariates to see whether it changes much.

 doug

 On 01/28/2014 07:52 PM, KimMJ wrote:
 
 
  
  Dear Doug
 
  Thank you for the prompt reply.
  I want to make sure: If there is no group*age interaction, is it safe
  to report the result of group differences using DODS (1 -1 0 0 )?
  Or is it more appropriate (or mandatory) to further use DOSS to look
  for group differences (1 -1 0)?
  The reason why I ask you is that the results of group differences
  using DODS is satisfactorily significant to support my hypothesis.
 
  Sorry for bothering you again with my silly question.
  Thank you.
 
  Min J.
 
 
 
 
 
 
  Date: Tue, 28 Jan 2014 12:10:42 -0500
  From: gr...@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu
  To: freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu
  Subject: Re: [Freesurfer] A question regarding DODS or DOSS
 
 
  On 1/28/14 7:03 AM, KimMJ wrote:
 
  Dear Doug and experts
 
  My question is about the choice of DODS or DOSS.
  I want to compare cortical thickness between 2 groups (disease
  group and control group), while controlling for the effect of age
  (nuisance covariate).
  I've already read through the mailing list about the issue of DODS
  and DOSS designs.
 
  If I understand correctly, I have to first use DODS (QDEC) in
  order to find areas of significant group*age interaction by using
  the contrast (0 0 1 -1).
  Given there is no area of interaction that survived multiple
  comparisons correction, I can go with DOSS (1 -1 0) using
  mri_glmfit (command line) to test between-group differences in
  cortical thickness, controlling for the effect of age. Am I right?
 
  Yes
 
 
  My another question is that 'MUST' I rerun DOSS model after
  confirming no group*age interaction in DODS ? Or can I directly
  use the results of DODS to look for between-group differences
  controlling for age (1 -1 0 0), since there is no group*age
  interaction ?
  Is there much difference in results between the above-mentioned
  two approaches?
 
  Technically, yes, though the results will be different. How different,
  no one knows. The reason I like going to DODS is that there are no
  issues with the slopes being slightly different. It does not take much
  time to re-run it.
 
  I've found a reply by Doug from the mailing list: If there is no
  interaction, then either DODS or DOSS is appropriate. DOSS will be
  more powerful and a little more interpretable
  (
 http://www.mail-archive.com/freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu/msg33418.html
  
 http://www.mail-archive.com/freesurfer%40nmr.mgh.harvard.edu/msg33418.html
 ).
  From this context, what does the 'powerful' mean? Does DOSS yield
  higher statistical values than DODS?
 
  It means that you will have a higher degrees of freedom. All other
  things being equal, it means more significant p values.
  doug
 
 
  Apology for the beginner's questions.
  Thank you in advance for your help.
 
  MJ
 
 
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 Freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu
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  list Freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu
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[Freesurfer] A question regarding DODS or DOSS

2014-01-28 Thread KimMJ
Dear Doug and experts
My question is about the choice of DODS or DOSS.I want to compare cortical 
thickness between 2 groups (disease group and control group), while controlling 
for the effect of age (nuisance covariate).I've already read through the 
mailing list about the issue of DODS and DOSS designs.
If I understand correctly, I have to first use DODS (QDEC) in order to find 
areas of significant group*age interaction by using the contrast (0 0 1 
-1).Given there is no area of interaction that survived multiple comparisons 
correction, I can go with DOSS (1 -1 0) using mri_glmfit (command line) to test 
between-group differences in cortical thickness, controlling for the effect of 
age. Am I right?
My another question is that 'MUST' I rerun DOSS model after confirming no 
group*age interaction in DODS ? Or can I directly use the results of DODS to 
look for between-group differences controlling for age (1 -1 0 0), since there 
is no group*age interaction ?Is there much difference in results between the 
above-mentioned two approaches?I've found a reply by Doug from the mailing 
list: If there is no interaction, then either DODS or DOSS is appropriate. DOSS 
will be more powerful and a little more interpretable 
(http://www.mail-archive.com/freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu/msg33418.html). 
From this context, what does the 'powerful' mean? Does DOSS yield higher 
statistical values than DODS?  
Apology for the beginner's questions.Thank you in advance for your help.
MJ___
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Re: [Freesurfer] A question regarding DODS or DOSS

2014-01-28 Thread Douglas Greve


On 1/28/14 7:03 AM, KimMJ wrote:

Dear Doug and experts

My question is about the choice of DODS or DOSS.
I want to compare cortical thickness between 2 groups (disease group 
and control group), while controlling for the effect of age (nuisance 
covariate).
I've already read through the mailing list about the issue of DODS and 
DOSS designs.


If I understand correctly, I have to first use DODS (QDEC) in order to 
find areas of significant group*age interaction by using the contrast 
(0 0 1 -1).
Given there is no area of interaction that survived multiple 
comparisons correction, I can go with DOSS (1 -1 0) using mri_glmfit 
(command line) to test between-group differences in cortical 
thickness, controlling for the effect of age. Am I right?

Yes


My another question is that 'MUST' I rerun DOSS model after confirming 
no group*age interaction in DODS ? Or can I directly use the results 
of DODS to look for between-group differences controlling for age (1 
-1 0 0), since there is no group*age interaction ?
Is there much difference in results between the above-mentioned two 
approaches?
Technically, yes, though the results will be different. How different, 
no one knows. The reason I like going to DODS is that there are no 
issues with the slopes being slightly different. It does not take much 
time to re-run it.
I've found a reply by Doug from the mailing list: If there is no 
interaction, then either DODS or DOSS is appropriate. DOSS will be 
more powerful and a little more interpretable 
(http://www.mail-archive.com/freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu/msg33418.html). 
From this context, what does the 'powerful' mean? Does DOSS yield 
higher statistical values than DODS?
It means that you will have a higher degrees of freedom. All other 
things being equal, it means more significant  p values.

doug


Apology for the beginner's questions.
Thank you in advance for your help.

MJ


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Re: [Freesurfer] A question regarding DODS or DOSS

2014-01-28 Thread KimMJ


Dear Doug
Thank you for the prompt reply.I want to make sure: If there is no group*age 
interaction, is it safe to report the result of group differences using DODS (1 
-1 0 0 )?Or is it more appropriate (or mandatory) to further use DOSS to look 
for group differences (1 -1 0)?The reason why I ask you is that the results of 
group differences using DODS is satisfactorily significant to support my 
hypothesis.
Sorry for bothering you again with my silly question.Thank you.
Min J.   





Date: Tue, 28 Jan 2014 12:10:42 -0500
From: gr...@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu
To: freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu
Subject: Re: [Freesurfer] A question regarding DODS or DOSS


  

  
  


On 1/28/14 7:03 AM, KimMJ wrote:



  
  Dear Doug and experts


  
My question is about the
choice of DODS or DOSS.
I want to compare cortical
thickness between 2 groups (disease group and control
group), while controlling for the effect of age (nuisance
covariate).
I've already read through the
mailing list about the issue of DODS and DOSS designs.


  
If I understand correctly, I
have to first use DODS (QDEC) in order to find areas of
significant group*age interaction by using the contrast (0 0
1 -1).
Given there is no area of
interaction that survived multiple comparisons correction, I
can go with DOSS (1 -1 0) using mri_glmfit (command line) to
test between-group differences in cortical thickness,
controlling for the effect of age. Am I right?
  

Yes


  


  
My another question is that
'MUST' I rerun DOSS model after confirming no group*age
interaction in DODS ? Or can I directly use the results of
DODS to look for between-group differences controlling for
age (1 -1 0 0), since there is no group*age interaction ?
Is there much difference in
results between the above-mentioned two approaches?
  

Technically, yes, though the results will be different. How different, no 
one
  knows. The reason I like going to DODS is that
there are no issues with the slopes being slightly
different. It does not take much time to re-run it.


  
I've found a reply by Doug
from the mailing list: If there is no interaction, then
either DODS or DOSS is appropriate. DOSS will be more
powerful and a little more interpretable 
(http://www.mail-archive.com/freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu/msg33418.html).
From this context, what does the 'powerful' mean? Does DOSS
yield higher statistical values than DODS?  

  
  

It means that you
will have a higher degrees of freedom. All other things being equal,
it means more significant  p values.

doug


  


  
Apology for the beginner's
questions.
Thank you in advance for your
help.


  
MJ  
  
  

  
  

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