[Haskell-cafe] lazy patterns versus where-clauses
Is f(~p(x))=e(x) semantically equivalent to: f(z)=e(x) where p(x)=z? ___ Haskell-Cafe mailing list Haskell-Cafe@haskell.org http://www.haskell.org/mailman/listinfo/haskell-cafe
Re: [Haskell-cafe] lazy patterns versus where-clauses
On Thu, Jun 21, 2007 at 06:13:22PM +0200, Peter Padawitz wrote: Is f(~p(x))=e(x) semantically equivalent to: f(z)=e(x) where p(x)=z? Yes. PS: I saw that twice Stefan ___ Haskell-Cafe mailing list Haskell-Cafe@haskell.org http://www.haskell.org/mailman/listinfo/haskell-cafe
Re: [Haskell] Re: [Haskell-cafe] lazy patterns versus where-clauses
On Thu, Jun 21, 2007 at 09:18:02AM -0700, Stefan O'Rear wrote: PS: I saw that twice Oops, failed to notice the cross-post - I thought it was a double post, sorry. In the future smallish questions should usually be directed to -cafe@ - haskell@ is treated as an announce list. Stefan ___ Haskell-Cafe mailing list Haskell-Cafe@haskell.org http://www.haskell.org/mailman/listinfo/haskell-cafe
Re: [Haskell-cafe] lazy patterns versus where-clauses
Peter Padawitz writes: Is f(~p(x))=e(x) semantically equivalent to: f(z)=e(x) where p(x)=z? Yep. See also http://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/Haskell/Laziness#Lazy_pattern_matching regarding lazy patterns. -- -David House, [EMAIL PROTECTED] ___ Haskell-Cafe mailing list Haskell-Cafe@haskell.org http://www.haskell.org/mailman/listinfo/haskell-cafe
