Re: [PEIRCE-L] Pure and applied mathematics

2018-09-19 Thread kirstima
The answer offered  here to Jerry Chandler by John Sowa I find a very 
good answer.


Cheers, Kirsti



John F Sowa kirjoitti 19.9.2018 17:33:

Jerry LRC,

As Kirsti said, the subject line about categories and modes was
a long thread about Peirce's 1903 classification of the sciences.
I plan to post a copy that text, my diagram about it, and related
quotations by Peirce on my web site.

But I changed the subject line for the topic of pure & applied math.


everything that is imaginable can be described by some theory
of pure mathematics.


How can one describe a “feeling” in pure mathematical terms?


You can't.  That would require applied mathematics.


How can one describe a large bio-molecule, such as Nicotinamide
Adenine Dinucleotide (NAD) in pure mathematical terms?"


For any theory of applied math, there is a simple procedure for
finding a corresponding theory of pure math.  And it's based
on the point you mentioned:

Simply quote W.O Quine:  “To be is to be a variable.”


 1. Start with whatever applied theory you have.  Let's assume
that it's stated in some mixture of mathematical formulas,
chemical symbols, chemical formulas, and English statements.

 2. Leave every name or symbol in pure math unchanged.  Replace
every name or symbol in the application with some distinct, but
non-obvious name -- for example, relation names R1, R2, R3...;
function names F1, F2, F3...; and entity names E1, E2, E3
For variables, use non-obvious names:  x1, x2, x3...

 3. Then translate every statement or formula in any notation
to predicate calculus (Peirce-Peano algebra).  This would be
systematic for the formulas in math & chemistry, but it may
take some thought and rewriting to force raw English into
predicate calculus.  But if the English is precise (or can
be restated precisely), the translation can be done.

 4. But your theory probably depends on many other theories
of chemistry and physics.  Repeat the above steps with all
of those theories -- and be sure to maintain a record of
the way each name was translated -- consistent translation
across all the theories is essential.

 5. After you finish that, throw away the crib sheet that says how
the original names were mapped to the R, F, E, and x symbols.

You now have a theory about which Bertrand Russell would say
"We don't know what we're talking about or whether what we're
saying is true."

That's pure math.

Of course, nobody would ever attempt to translate a complex
theory with many complex dependencies by the above procedure.

Scientists and engineers normally adopt and adapt pure math theories
one at a time, as they are needed.  They often create applied theories
from scratch, without looking for a prefabricated theory in pure math.
But all  such theories can be translated to pure math by the above
method or some variation of it.

John



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Re: [PEIRCE-L] Pure and applied mathematics

2018-09-19 Thread John F Sowa

On 9/19/2018 4:28 PM, Jerry LR Chandler wrote:
A chemical atomic number, as a unique form of matter, is composed of 
polar opposite electrical charges that generate a special (polar) 
logical operation called valence that operates only on one of the pair 
of polar opposites.


That is an empirical issue about the application.


It can never be a variable in the sense of the Cartesian axis system,
which is the sense of Quine categorical error.


See below for the method for removing all references from an applied
theory to derive a theory of pure math.  The method for applying
a pure theory to chemistry would reverse that mapping.

Note step #2 below.  It would map chemical entity names to symbols
such as E1, E2, E3...  Those are not variables.  They are just
names of abstract entities in the mathematical theory.

Then, if you apply that pure math theory to chemistry, you would
map those names E1, E2... of abstract entities back to the names
of entities in the subject matter (in this example, chemistry).

The purpose of this discussion is to illustrate the mappings
of mathematical theories to and from any empirical subject.
There are infinitely many theories of pure math.

For every theory (precise, approximate, or mistaken) in any empirical
subject, there is a corresponding theory of pure math.  The theory of
phlogiston, for example, has a counterpart in pure math.  It makes
some true predictions, but most of its predictions are wrong.

But the converse is not true.  There are infinitely many pure math
theories that have no application to anything in the universe.
Some of them are logical possibilities that are physically
impossible.  Others are just irrelevant to anything real.
Others are so weird that they aren't even imaginary -- no human
could imagine them.

John


 1. Start with whatever applied theory you have.  Let's assume
that it's stated in some mixture of mathematical formulas,
chemical symbols, chemical formulas, and English statements.

 2. Leave every name or symbol in pure math unchanged.  Replace
every name or symbol in the application with some distinct, but
non-obvious name -- for example, relation names R1, R2, R3...;
function names F1, F2, F3...; and entity names E1, E2, E3
For variables, use non-obvious names:  x1, x2, x3...

 3. Then translate every statement or formula in any notation
to predicate calculus (Peirce-Peano algebra).  This would be
systematic for the formulas in math & chemistry, but it may
take some thought and rewriting to force raw English into
predicate calculus.  But if the English is precise (or can
be restated precisely), the translation can be done.

 4. But your theory probably depends on many other theories
of chemistry and physics.  Repeat the above steps with all
of those theories -- and be sure to maintain a record of
the way each name was translated -- consistent translation
across all the theories is essential.

 5. After you finish that, throw away the crib sheet that says how
the original names were mapped to the R, F, E, and x symbols.

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Re: [PEIRCE-L] Pure and applied mathematics

2018-09-19 Thread Jerry LR Chandler
John, List:

> On Sep 19, 2018, at 9:33 AM, John F Sowa  wrote:
> 
>> 
>> How can one describe a large bio-molecule, such as Nicotinamide
>> Adenine Dinucleotide (NAD) in pure mathematical terms?"
> 
> For any theory of applied math, there is a simple procedure for
> finding a corresponding theory of pure math.  And it's based
> on the point you mentioned:
>> Simply quote W.O Quine:  “To be is to be a variable.”
> 

A chemical atomic number, as a unique form of matter, is composed of polar 
opposite electrical charges that generate  a special (polar) logical operation 
called valence that operates only on one of the pair of polar opposites.
It can never be a variable in the sense of the Cartesian axis system, which is 
the sense of Quine categorical error.

This is factual realism.

Cheers

Jerry
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RE: [PEIRCE-L] Terminology of Peirce's final sign classification

2018-09-19 Thread gnox
Jon, a few brief responses inserted:

 

From: Jon Alan Schmidt  
Sent: 19-Sep-18 13:07



Gary F., List:

I was not previously aware of Peirce's marginal note about "Replica," so thank 
you for bringing it to my attention; the CP editors dated it "c. 1910," not 
1904.  He used "Replica" quite extensively before that--including in "New 
Elements"--for each enduring embodiment of a Sign within a particular Sign 
System, such as each appearance of "the" on a printed page of English text.

GF: The date of the note is of no importance. What I said was that Peirce did 
not use the term “replica” after 1904 in a semiotic context. You have not cited 
an example to refute that observation, nor have you cited an instance of Peirce 
ever using the term “Sign-Replica.”

  I am proposing to retain it for this purpose, mainly to differentiate it from 
an "Instance" of a Sign as he defined that term in 1906, which is an occurrence 
at exactly one time and place.  As long as a book is closed and sitting on the 
shelf, it contains many Replicas of "the," but an Instance of that Sign only 
happens each time someone actually reads one of them.  Also, for the record, 
Peirce definitely did not use "replica" as a synonym for "sinsign" in 1903.

CSP:  Every legisign signifies through an instance of its application, which 
may be termed a Replica of it. Thus, the word "the" will usually occur from 
fifteen to twenty-five times on a page. It is in all these occurrences one and 
the same word, the same legisign. Each single instance of it is a replica. The 
replica is a sinsign. Thus, every legisign requires sinsigns. But these are not 
ordinary sinsigns, such as are peculiar occurrences that are regarded as 
significant. Nor would the replica be significant if it were not for the law 
which renders it so. (CP 2.246, EP 2:291; 1903)

GF: True, the two words are not synonyms in the strictest sense of the word. 
But a “replica is a sinsign” and a sinsign is a sign in this classification, 
which means that the replica is a sign. This is not the case in your 
systematization, because all signs are Types, and a Replica is not a Type, is 
it?

In this scheme, every Replica was a Sinsign, but not an ordinary one, such that 
not every Sinsign was a Replica; and a Replica was only significant because it 
was rendered so by the Legisign that it embodied.  I acknowledge that my 
current approach is different--I am proposing that all Signs are what Peirce 
called Legisigns in 1903 (Types in 1906 and later), because as he wrote 
elsewhere, a Sign only exists in Replicas; in itself, it is an Entelechy (3ns), 
not a Matter (2ns).  We can (and Peirce often did) call the Replicas "Signs" in 
the same way that we can talk about "the" both as one word and as 15 to 25 
different words on a page.  However, for the sake of clarity--especially within 
technical discussions of Speculative Grammar--I continue to advocate reserving 
"Sign" for the former, calling the latter "Replicas," and using "Instance" for 
each individual event of semiosis that produces a Dynamic Interpretant.

GF:  But it makes less sense to speak of written, printed or pronounced 
instances of the word “the” as “replicas”, because they differ radically in 
perceptible form ...

I have addressed this before.  Replicas of the same Sign within the same Sign 
System will resemble each other; it is precisely their significant characters 
(Tones) that make them recognizable as Replicas of Signs at all.  However, 
Replicas of the same Sign in different Sign Systems--e.g., written/printed 
English vs. spoken English, not to mention other languages--may indeed "differ 
radically."

GF: Sorry, this rationalization of your usage does not address the issue. 
Peirce said that there is only one word “the” in the English language, only one 
Type, regardless of whether Tokens of it are spoken or printed. A language is 
one Sign System, regardless of the variety of media used to utter the signs. 

Again, none of this amounts to an exegetical claim about Peirce's writings; 
rather, it is a systematic proposal for understanding Signs and their relations 
today.  I would be glad to consider any purported cases of "existing things or 
events which turn out to be significant," but allegedly cannot be analyzed as 
Replicas/Instances of general Signs.  I have already explained in other threads 
why I do not view ripples on a lake, weathercocks, thermometers, barometers, 
etc. as counterexamples.

GF: Yes, I’ve seen those explanations, which mainly demonstrates your skill at 
rationalizing. The footprint I saw in the mud just now is not a replica of any 
other sign or a Token of any Type. The fact that we have a general concept of 
“footprint” does not constitute an analysis of that sign in the mud, or indeed 
of any genuine index. I just don’t see how such repurposing of Peirce’s terms 
contributes anything but confusion to the understanding of signs today.

Gary f.

Regards,

Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, 

[PEIRCE-L] Pure and applied mathematics

2018-09-19 Thread John F Sowa

Jerry LRC,

As Kirsti said, the subject line about categories and modes was
a long thread about Peirce's 1903 classification of the sciences.
I plan to post a copy that text, my diagram about it, and related
quotations by Peirce on my web site.

But I changed the subject line for the topic of pure & applied math.


everything that is imaginable can be described by some theory
of pure mathematics. 


How can one describe a “feeling” in pure mathematical terms?


You can't.  That would require applied mathematics.


How can one describe a large bio-molecule, such as Nicotinamide
Adenine Dinucleotide (NAD) in pure mathematical terms?"


For any theory of applied math, there is a simple procedure for
finding a corresponding theory of pure math.  And it's based
on the point you mentioned:

Simply quote W.O Quine:  “To be is to be a variable.”


 1. Start with whatever applied theory you have.  Let's assume
that it's stated in some mixture of mathematical formulas,
chemical symbols, chemical formulas, and English statements.

 2. Leave every name or symbol in pure math unchanged.  Replace
every name or symbol in the application with some distinct, but
non-obvious name -- for example, relation names R1, R2, R3...;
function names F1, F2, F3...; and entity names E1, E2, E3
For variables, use non-obvious names:  x1, x2, x3...

 3. Then translate every statement or formula in any notation
to predicate calculus (Peirce-Peano algebra).  This would be
systematic for the formulas in math & chemistry, but it may
take some thought and rewriting to force raw English into
predicate calculus.  But if the English is precise (or can
be restated precisely), the translation can be done.

 4. But your theory probably depends on many other theories
of chemistry and physics.  Repeat the above steps with all
of those theories -- and be sure to maintain a record of
the way each name was translated -- consistent translation
across all the theories is essential.

 5. After you finish that, throw away the crib sheet that says how
the original names were mapped to the R, F, E, and x symbols.

You now have a theory about which Bertrand Russell would say
"We don't know what we're talking about or whether what we're
saying is true."

That's pure math.

Of course, nobody would ever attempt to translate a complex
theory with many complex dependencies by the above procedure.

Scientists and engineers normally adopt and adapt pure math theories
one at a time, as they are needed.  They often create applied theories
from scratch, without looking for a prefabricated theory in pure math.
But all  such theories can be translated to pure math by the above
method or some variation of it.

John

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RE: [PEIRCE-L] Terminology of Peirce's final sign classification

2018-09-19 Thread gnox
Jon, list,

I agree with you (and Gary R) that “sign-vehicle” is an unfortunate choice of 
term, for the reasons you’ve given. But similar reasons apply to your term 
“Sign-Replica,” another term that Peirce himself never used (with or without 
the hyphen), as far as I can tell. He did use the term “Graph-replica” to 
distinguish between a graph that visibly existed on paper and the imagined 
diagram that it “replicated”; but he stopped using the term “replica” in 
reference to EGs in 1904, for reasons given in a marginal note to CP 4.395: “I 
abandon this inappropriate term, replica, Mr. Kempe having already (‘Memoir on 
the Theory of Mathematical Form’ [Philosophical Transactions, Royal Society 
(1886)], §170) given it another meaning. I now call it an instance.”

Peirce also stopped using the term “replica” in reference to signs generally, 
and I doubt that you can find an instance of it in his semiotics after 1904. In 
the 1903 classification, he was using it as a synonym for “sinsign.” Since 
qualisign/sinsign/legisign is a trichotomy of signs — as is tone/token/type — a 
sinsign, or token, or replica, is a kind of sign. So is a legisign, or Type; in 
which case it makes no sense to say that all Signs are Types; which is probably 
why Peirce never said that, not even in “Kaina Stoicheia.” Likewise the term 
“Sign-Replica” makes no sense because a replica is a sign in the only 
classification system where Peirce actually used the word “replica,” that of 
1903. And besides that, many of the examples Peirce gave of sinsigns at that 
time do not actually replicate anything; they are simply existing things or 
actual events which are determined by objects to determine interpretants. (The 
fact that you have to use a symbol in order to name or denote these things is 
irrelevant to their functioning as signs.)

I’m inclined to think that Peirce’s use of “replica” in the 1903 classification 
of signs was already a mistake. It is misleading because for all ordinary 
purposes, a replica is a copy of something, usually of an existing thing. This 
is not necessarily the case with sinsigns, or with tokens as defined by Peirce 
in 1906: “A Single event which happens once and whose identity is limited to 
that one happening or a Single object or thing which is in some single place at 
any one instant of time, such event or thing being significant only as 
occurring just when and where it does.” Peirce does not say here, or anywhere 
that I know of, that a Token of a Type is a “replica” of that type, because 
that would be misleading: the relationship between a Token and the Type that it 
‘betokens’ is not the same as the relation between a replica and what it 
replicates, because the latter two are ordinarily in the same mode of being. It 
makes sense to speak of a “replica” of a graph which has been imagined but not 
scribed, because both graph and replica are essentially visual. But it makes 
less sense to speak of written, printed or pronounced instances of the word 
“the” as “replicas”, because they differ radically in perceptible form — which 
is probably why Peirce didn’t use that term for them after 1904, not even when 
he was using the word as his paradigmatic illustration of the Type-Token 
distinction.

For your “systematic” revision of Peircean terminology you could, I suppose, 
follow Peirce’s example and replace “replica” with “instance.” But that would 
be a band-aid solution to the deeper problem, which is your claim (or proposal) 
that all Signs are Types. For Peirce, an existing instance of a word is a sign 
(albeit a fragmentary and incomplete one), and calling it a “sign-instance” or 
“sign-replica” as if it were only an instance of a Sign is at best redundant. 
As for existing things or events which turn out to be significant, calling them 
“sign-replicas” is deeply misleading — more deeply than the notion of a 
“sign-vehicle.”

Gary f.

 

From: Jon Alan Schmidt  
Sent: 18-Sep-18 21:07
To: peirce-l@list.iupui.edu
Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Terminology of Peirce's final sign classification

 

Gary R., List:

 

I agree with your comments about Atkins's unfortunate take on the trichotomy 
according to the Sign itself.  It certainly does not pertain to "the 
Sign-Vehicle," since this is a term that Peirce himself never used.  The 
closest that he came was when he wrote in an unidentified fragment, "A sign 
stands for something to the idea which it produces, or modifies. Or, it is a 
vehicle conveying into the mind something from without" (CP 1.339).  On the 
other hand, he clearly distinguished a Sign from a vehicle when discussing the 
"somewhat imperfect example" of a mosquito transmitting a disease.

 

CSP:   ... the active medium is in some measure of the nature of a vehicle, 
which differs from a medium of communication in acting upon the transported 
object and determining it to a changed location, where, without further 
interposition of the vehicle, it acts upon, or is acted upon by, the